21 Air Conditioning 33 questions

Two packs turn hot bleed air into cool, dry air; a mixer unit blends it with recirculated cabin air; trim air warms individual zones. Learn the chain in order — source, pack, mixer, zone — and every fault becomes a question of where in the chain the air stops.

Zones

• Which three temperature zones have their own selector on the A320 AIR COND panel? Cockpit, forward cabin and aft cabin. The panel carries COCKPIT, FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN selectors. Cargo has its own ventilation and is not one of the three conditioned zones.
• What temperature does a zone selector request in its 12 o'clock position? 24 °C (76 °F). The mid position is about 24 °C. The scale runs from about 18 °C at COLD to about 30 °C at HOT.
• What temperature does a zone selector request at the COLD stop? 18 °C (64 °F). COLD is about 18 °C. The selectors cover roughly 18–30 °C, with 24 °C at the top.
• What temperature does a zone selector request at the HOT stop? 30 °C (86 °F). HOT is about 30 °C. The selectors cover roughly 18–30 °C, with 24 °C at the top.

Packs

• How do PACK 1 and PACK 2 operate in normal use? Automatically and independently of each other. Each pack has its own controller and flow control valve; the loss of one does not take the other with it.
• What does the PACK pushbutton in the ON (lights out) position do? The pack flow control valve is automatically controlled. ON hands the valve to automatic control. The valve still closes automatically for its protections.
• What happens when a PACK pushbutton is selected OFF? The pack flow control valve closes. Selecting OFF shuts the pack's flow control valve, so that pack delivers no air.
• Which condition does NOT turn on the amber PACK FAULT light? The PACK FLOW selector set to LO. FAULT means a valve disagreement or a pack overheat (compressor outlet or pack outlet). Flow selection is a normal setting, not a fault.

Pack flow

• What flow does the PACK FLOW selector give in LO? 80 % of normal. LO is 80 %, NORM 100 % and HI 120 %.
• What flow does the PACK FLOW selector give in HI? 120 % of normal. HI is 120 %, used for smoke removal and hot or wet conditions.
• In which situation is the PACK FLOW selector setting irrelevant, the flow being HI regardless? Single pack operation, or when the APU bleed is supplying the packs. With only one pack, or with APU bleed air, the system always uses HI flow; the selector has no effect.
• LO pack flow is selected, but the cooling demand cannot be met. What does the system do? It goes to 100 % flow even though LO is selected. LO is a request, not a limit: if cooling cannot be satisfied the flow rises to NORM.
• On what basis is the PACK FLOW selector set? The number of passengers and the ambient conditions (smoke removal, hot or wet conditions). Fewer passengers allow LO to save bleed air; smoke removal and hot or humid days call for HI.

Trim air

• What does the HOT AIR pushbutton in the ON position provide? Hot air for the trim air system. HOT AIR ON opens the hot air pressure regulating valve so trim air is available to raise each zone's temperature.
• What happens when the HOT AIR pushbutton is selected OFF? The hot air valve closes and any FAULT is reset. OFF closes the hot air valve; it is also the action that clears a HOT AIR FAULT.
• At what duct temperature does the HOT AIR FAULT light come on? Above 88 °C (190 °F). A duct overheat above 88 °C gives the amber FAULT and an ECAM caution, and the valves close automatically.
• After a HOT AIR FAULT, when does the FAULT light go out by itself? When the duct temperature falls below 70 °C (158 °F). The light goes out below 70 °C, or when the crew selects the pushbutton OFF.

Emergency ram air

• What does pressing the guarded RAM AIR pushbutton ON do? It opens the emergency ram air inlet. RAM AIR is a separate emergency inlet, used to ventilate the aircraft when the packs are lost or for smoke removal.
• RAM AIR is selected ON while the cabin differential pressure is 1 psi or more. What happens? The outflow valve control stays normal and no emergency ram air flows in. Ram air pressure cannot overcome a cabin at 1 psi or more above ambient, so nothing flows until the differential falls.
• RAM AIR is ON, differential pressure is below 1 psi and pressurisation is in automatic. What does the outflow valve do? It opens to about 50 %. Opening the outflow valve about halfway gives the incoming ram air a way out, so it flows through the cabin.
• RAM AIR is ON with pressurisation in manual mode. What does the outflow valve do automatically? Nothing: it does not open automatically under manual control. In MAN the crew drives the outflow valve with MAN V/S CTL; the automatic opening only happens under automatic control.
• Where does emergency ram air go once it flows in? Directly to the mixer unit. Emergency ram air bypasses the packs and enters the mixer unit, from where it is distributed to the zones.
• What does DITCHING do to the emergency ram air inlet? It closes it, even if RAM AIR is ON. Ditching closes every opening below the floating line, the ram air inlet included.

Indications

• What does a green ALTN MODE message on the ECAM COND page mean? The primary zone controller is faulty. ALTN MODE shows that the zone controller's primary channel has failed and its back-up is in use.
• What does a green PACK REG message on the ECAM COND page mean? The zone controller is faulty, so the packs regulate the temperature themselves. With the zone controller lost, the pack controllers take over temperature regulation on their own.
• What does an amber FAN on the ECAM COND page indicate? A recirculation fan is faulty. The FAN indication on the COND page concerns the cabin recirculation fans.
• Above what duct temperature does a zone's duct temperature turn amber on the COND page? 80 °C. The duct indication turns amber above 80 °C — an early sign of trim air heating too much.
• On the COND page, the hot air pressure regulating valve shows an amber crossline. What does that mean? HOT AIR is OFF with the valve closed, or the valve disagrees with its commanded position. A green crossline is a normally closed valve with the button in AUTO; amber flags OFF or a disagreement.
• Above what temperature does the pack outlet temperature turn amber on the BLEED page? 90 °C. Pack outlet above 90 °C is an overheat indication.
• Above what temperature does the pack compressor outlet temperature turn amber on the BLEED page? 230 °C. The compressor outlet is the hottest point inside the pack; amber above 230 °C indicates an overheat.
• On the BLEED page, how is a pack ram air inlet flap that is fully open on the ground shown? Amber inline. Fully open in flight is green; fully open on the ground is amber.
• What do the letters C and H next to a pack's turbine bypass valve on the BLEED page mean? C: the valve is closed (cold); H: the valve is open (hot). The bypass valve sends hot air around the cooling turbine. Closed gives the coldest outlet, open the hottest.
• When is the pack flow indication shown in amber on the BLEED page? When the pack flow control valve is closed. Amber pack flow means no flow through that pack because its flow control valve is closed.

21 Pressurization 31 questions

The packs push air in, one outflow valve lets it out, and two pressure controllers decide how far the valve is open, following a schedule from the ground through climb, cruise and descent. Two safety valves stand behind it.

Modes

• In which ways can the flight crew run the cabin pressurisation system? Automatically, semi-automatically (manual landing elevation) or manually. Normal operation is fully automatic. Setting LDG ELEV by hand is the semi-automatic case; MODE SEL MAN is full manual control.

Schedule

• On the ground after landing, how long after touchdown does the outflow valve go fully open? 55 seconds. On the ground before take-off and 55 s after landing the outflow valve opens fully so no residual pressure remains.
• At touchdown, at what cabin vertical speed is any remaining cabin pressure released? 500 ft/min. The residual differential is let out at a controlled 500 ft/min so the ears of the passengers are not hit by a sudden change.
• During take-off, at what rate does the system pre-pressurise the cabin? 400 ft/min. Pre-pressurisation runs at 400 ft/min (cabin descending) to avoid a pressure surge at rotation.
• Pre-pressurisation continues until the differential pressure reaches what value? 0.1 psi. A small positive differential of 0.1 psi is enough to stop the pressure bump when the aircraft rotates.
• Why does the system pre-pressurise the cabin for take-off? To avoid a pressure surge at rotation. Without a small positive differential the cabin would see a pressure bump as the aircraft rotates.
• When does the pressure controller begin its climb phase? At lift-off. The climb phase starts at lift-off, following on from pre-pressurisation.
• In the climb, how does the cabin altitude change? According to a pre-programmed law that takes the aircraft's actual rate of climb into account. The cabin climbs on a schedule that adapts to how fast the aircraft is actually climbing.
• What cabin altitude does the system hold in cruise? The level-off value or the landing field elevation, whichever is higher. If the destination is higher than the cruise cabin altitude, the system holds the destination elevation instead.
• What does the controller aim for during the descent? Cabin pressure equal to the landing field pressure just before landing. Matching field pressure at touchdown means nothing is left to release when the doors open.
• What is the maximum cabin rate of descent in automatic control? 750 ft/min. The descent rate is limited to 750 ft/min for passenger comfort.
• During a rejected take-off, what does the pressurisation system do? It stops the cabin altitude climbing and sets cabin pressure back to take-off altitude + 0.1 psi. The abort phase holds the cabin at the pre-pressurised take-off condition instead of starting a climb.

Controls

• With LDG ELEV in AUTO, where does the landing elevation come from? From the FMGS, which is used to build an optimised pressure schedule. In AUTO the destination data in the FMGS drive the schedule.
• What range of landing elevation can the crew select with the LDG ELEV selector? –2 000 ft to +14 000 ft. Any position other than AUTO uses the selected value as the landing elevation reference.
• How should the crew set an accurate manual landing elevation with the LDG ELEV selector? By reading the value on the ECAM, because the selector scale is only indicative. The knob's scale is approximate; the ECAM PRESS page shows the value actually selected.
• How does the MODE SEL pushbutton show that manual mode is selected? MAN appears in white, and FAULT does not come on. MAN is a crew choice, so it is white. Amber FAULT is reserved for the failure of both automatic systems.
• When does the MODE SEL FAULT light come on? When both automatic pressure control systems are faulty. One failed system is covered by the other. FAULT with an ECAM caution means both are lost and manual control is needed.
• With MODE SEL in MAN, what does holding the MAN V/S CTL switch UP do? Moves the outflow valve towards open. UP opens the valve, so the cabin altitude rises. DN closes it.
• With MODE SEL in MAN, what does holding the MAN V/S CTL switch DN do? Moves the outflow valve towards closed. DN closes the valve, so cabin pressure rises and cabin altitude comes down.
• Why must the MAN V/S CTL switch be held rather than flicked? The outflow valve moves slowly, so the switch is held until the target vertical speed is reached. The valve travel is slow; short inputs barely move it.
• Which of these is NOT closed by the DITCHING pushbutton? The engine bleed valves. Ditching closes the openings to the outside: outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, and pack flow control valves.

Indications

• On the PRESS page, when are the LDG ELEV mode and value hidden? When MODE SEL is in MAN. In manual mode the controller is not using a landing elevation, so it is not displayed.
• Above what cabin vertical speed does the V/S turn amber on the PRESS page? 2 000 ft/min. Amber above 2 000 ft/min. It begins pulsing green above 1 800 ft/min.
• Above what cabin vertical speed does the V/S indication start pulsing? 1 800 ft/min (it resets at 1 600 ft/min). Pulsing is an advisory before the 2 000 ft/min amber limit.
• Above what differential pressure does ΔP turn amber on the PRESS page? 8.5 psi. ΔP turns amber above 8.5 psi (and also when it goes slightly negative).
• Above what cabin altitude is the cabin altitude shown in red on the PRESS page? 9 550 ft. Red above 9 550 ft corresponds to the cabin altitude warning.
• From what cabin altitude does the cabin altitude indication pulse? 8 800 ft. Pulsing from 8 800 ft gives warning before the 9 550 ft red limit.
• On the PRESS page, what does SYS 1 shown in amber mean? System 1 is the active system and it is faulty. The active system is shown in green normally and in amber when it is faulty.
• What does a green MAN on the PRESS page system indication show? MODE SEL is in MAN. With manual mode selected the system indication reads MAN.
• When is SAFETY shown in amber on the PRESS page? When a safety valve is not fully closed. Normally the safety valves are closed and SAFETY is white. An open safety valve is abnormal.
• When is the outflow valve diagram shown in amber in flight? When the valve is open more than 95 %. In flight a nearly fully open outflow valve means the cabin cannot hold pressure.

21 Ventilation 16 questions

Avionics ventilation picks its own configuration — open circuit on the ground, closed circuit in flight — and the crew can override it for smoke. Cargo is ventilated by an extraction fan drawing cabin air through it.

Avionics ventilation

• With BLOWER and EXTRACT in AUTO, what avionics ventilation configuration is used on the ground before take-off power is set (normal skin temperature)? Open circuit. On the ground before take-off power the system runs open circuit, drawing air in and sending it overboard.
• On the ground before take-off power, when does the avionics ventilation use the closed circuit instead of the open circuit? When the skin temperature is below the ground threshold. A cold skin can cool the recirculated air on its own, so there is no need to take outside air.
• With both switches in AUTO, what configuration is used after take-off power is applied and in flight? Closed circuit. In flight the cold skin cools the recirculated avionics air, so the closed circuit is used.
• What happens when either the BLOWER or the EXTRACT pushbutton is set to OVRD? The system goes to closed circuit and air from the air conditioning system is added to the ventilation air. OVRD on one switch brings conditioned air into the closed avionics circuit.
• What happens to the blower fan when the BLOWER pushbutton is set to OVRD? It stops. With BLOWER in OVRD the blower fan stops and conditioned air takes its place.
• With both BLOWER and EXTRACT set to OVRD, how does the ventilation air flow? From the air conditioning system, through the avionics, and then overboard, with the extract fan still running. This is the configuration used for avionics smoke: conditioned air in, straight out overboard.

Faults

• Which of the following does NOT turn on the BLOWER FAULT light? A pack overheat. BLOWER FAULT comes from low blowing pressure, duct overheat, computer power failure or the smoke warning.
• Which of the following turns on the EXTRACT FAULT light? Low extract pressure. EXTRACT FAULT comes from low extract pressure, computer power failure or the smoke warning.
• When the avionics smoke warning is active, what do the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons show? FAULT on both. The smoke warning lights both FAULT lights, prompting the crew to set them to OVRD in the procedure.

Cabin

• How many cabin (recirculation) fans does the CAB FANS pushbutton control? Two. CAB FANS ON runs both cabin fans; OFF stops both.

Cargo

• How are the cargo compartments ventilated? An extraction fan draws air out of the compartment and overboard, and cabin air flows in to replace it. The extract fan creates the flow; the supply is cabin air.
• With the AFT ISOL VALVE pushbutton in AUTO, when does the cargo extraction fan run? When no smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment. In AUTO the inlet and outlet isolation valves open and the fan runs unless smoke is detected.
• What does setting the AFT ISOL VALVE pushbutton OFF close? The inlet and outlet isolation valves and the cargo trim air valve, and the extraction fan stops. OFF isolates the compartment completely, including the hot trim air used for cargo heating.
• What turns on the AFT ISOL VALVE FAULT light? An inlet or outlet isolation valve not in the selected position. FAULT is a valve disagreement, with an ECAM caution.

Indications

• When is VENT shown in amber on the PRESS page? When there is a BLOWER FAULT, an EXTRACT FAULT or an AVNCS SYS FAULT. Avionics ventilation is displayed on the PRESS page, below the cabin pressure data.
• On the PRESS page, what does an amber XX on the avionics inlet or extract valve mean? The valve position is unavailable or the data are inconsistent. XX is always 'no valid data' on the ECAM.

22 Auto Flight - FCU and FMA 59 questions

Push for managed, pull for selected. The FMA is the truth about what the aircraft is doing: column by column, colour by colour. The autoland warning light belongs here too.

FCU

• What is the FCU's role? The short-term interface between the crew and the FMGC for engaging AP/FD/A/THR, selecting modes and setting targets. Long-term inputs (flight plan, performance) go through the MCDU.
• How does an FCU window show that its parameter is managed? Three dashes and a dot. In selected mode it shows the selected value and no dot.
• What does the FCU altitude window always show? An altitude selected by the pilot, never dashes (the dot means managed altitude). Unlike the other windows, ALT never dashes.
• What does pushing an FCU knob (SPD, HDG, ALT or V/S) do? Gives the corresponding mode to the FMGS to manage. Push = managed, pull = selected, turn = change the value.
• What does pulling an FCU knob do? Uses the crew-selected value for that mode. Pull = selected.
• In managed lateral mode, how long does a heading pre-selected by turning the HDG knob remain displayed before the dashes return? 45 seconds. The same 45 s applies to the V/S window; the SPD/MACH window shows a pre-selection for 10 s.
• In managed speed, how long does a speed pre-selected on the SPD/MACH knob remain displayed before the dashes return? 10 seconds. The HDG/TRK and V/S windows show pre-selections for 45 s.
• What is the range of the FCU speed window? 100 to 399 kt (Mach 0.10 to 0.99). The SPD/MACH pushbutton toggles between speed and Mach targets.
• What is the range of the FCU altitude window? 100 to 49 000 ft. The outer knob changes the step between 100 ft and 1 000 ft.
• What is the range of the FCU vertical speed window? –6 000 to +6 000 ft/min. In FPA mode the range is –9.9° to +9.9°.
• What is the range of the FCU flight path angle (FPA) target? –9.9° to +9.9°. FPA replaces V/S when TRK-FPA is selected.
• What does pushing the V/S-FPA knob do? Commands an immediate level off (V/S = 0). The FMA then shows V/S = 0.
• What does the HDG V/S - TRK FPA pushbutton change on the PFD? It shows or removes the flight path vector and switches the FD crossbars to the flight path director. It also changes the FCU windows between heading/track and V/S/FPA.
• What does the METRIC ALT pushbutton do? Shows the altitude target in metres on the ECAM, and altitudes in metres on the PFD. It helps in airspace that uses metric levels.

Autopilot

• What does a green light on an AP1 or AP2 pushbutton show? That autopilot is engaged. The lights are green when engaged.
• In normal procedures, how is the autopilot disengaged? With the takeover pushbutton on the sidestick. The sidestick pushbutton gives only short warnings.
• How long does the cavalry charge last when the autopilot is disengaged with the sidestick takeover pushbutton? About 1.5 seconds. The master warning lasts about 3 s and the red AP OFF message about 9 s.
• Which way of disengaging the autopilot gives continuous warnings with AUTO FLT AP OFF? Pressing the AP pushbutton on the FCU, a failure, or a force on the sidestick. Only the takeover pushbutton gives the short, self-cancelling warnings.

Autothrust

• What does a green light on the FCU A/THR pushbutton show? Autothrust is armed or active. The FMA tells which: A/THR in blue is armed, in white active.
• In normal procedures, how is the autothrust disconnected? With the instinctive disconnect pushbutton on the thrust levers, or by setting both levers to idle. The FCU button is not the normal way of disconnecting.

Vertical modes

• What does the EXPED pushbutton do? Climbs or descends to the selected altitude with the maximum vertical gradient. It disregards speed and altitude constraints and the speed limit.
• What target speed does EXP CLB use? Green dot. Green dot is held with pitch; A/THR sets climb thrust.
• What target speed does EXP DES use? 340 kt or Mach 0.8. The speed is held with pitch while A/THR sets idle.
• When is SRS displayed in the vertical column? When take-off or go-around mode is engaged. SRS guides pitch to hold a speed defined by the SRS law.
• What is the difference between CLB and OP CLB? CLB respects altitude constraints; OP CLB disregards them. OP CLB climbs straight to the FCU altitude.
• What does ALT* on the FMA mean? Altitude capture of the FCU-selected altitude. ALT CST* is the capture of an altitude constraint.
• What does ALT CRZ mean? Altitude hold at the cruise flight level. It is the altitude hold mode engaged at the cruise FL.
• When does the V/S annunciation flash in an amber box? When speed reaches VLS or VMAX and the vertical speed can no longer be held. V/S has priority over speed, so the speed limit eventually stops it.
• What does a magenta ALT in the armed vertical modes mean? The target altitude is an altitude constraint. Blue ALT means the FCU altitude is the target.

Approach

• If an ILS approach is in the flight plan, what modes does pressing APPR arm? LOC and G/S. For a non-precision approach it arms APP NAV and FINAL.
• What does the LOC pushbutton do? Arms, engages or disengages localizer mode only. LOC alone is used for a localizer-only approach or to intercept before the glideslope.
• What does the approach capability (CAT 1/2/3) on the FMA describe? The aircraft's capability, independent of the airport and runway. It reflects available equipment and redundancy.
• What does CAT 3 SINGLE mean? CAT 3 capability with fail-passive condition (one autopilot). DUAL is fail-operational, with both autopilots.
• What does CAT 3 DUAL mean? CAT 3 capability with fail-operational condition (both autopilots). A single failure still allows the autoland to be completed.
• Where does RADIO followed by a value on the FMA come from? The minimum descent height entered in the RADIO field of the MCDU APPR PERF page. BARO shows a minimum descent altitude instead.

FMA

• How many columns does the FMA have? Five. Autothrust, vertical, lateral, approach capability and engagement status.
• On the FMA, what colour is an active mode? Green. Armed modes are cyan; a changed mode has a white box for 10 seconds.
• How long is a newly changed mode surrounded by a white box on the FMA? 10 seconds. The box draws the eye to the change.

Autothrust modes

• When is MAN TOGA shown on the FMA? When autothrust is armed and at least one thrust lever is in the TO/GA detent. It is white in a white box: thrust is set manually by lever position.
• In MAN FLX XX, what does XX show? The flex take-off temperature, in blue. MAN FLX shows when a lever is at FLX/MCT with A/THR armed.
• When does MAN THR appear in an amber box? When A/THR is armed and the most forward lever is above the climb detent but not in a detent. Thrust is set by a lever between detents.
• When is THR LVR shown? When autothrust is in thrust mode with both levers below the climb detent. Thrust is limited to the lever position.
• What does a flashing LVR CLB request? That the pilots set the thrust levers to the climb detent. It appears at the thrust reduction altitude after take-off.
• When does LVR ASYM appear in amber? When one thrust lever is in the climb or FLX/MCT detent and the other is not (two engines). It warns of thrust levers set in different detents.
• What does a flashing amber THR LK mean? Autothrust has been disconnected and thrust is frozen at its last value. Moving the thrust levers releases the lock.
• If the crew takes no action with THR LK displayed, what happens? The master caution flashes and a single chime sounds every 5 seconds. The same reminder applies to LVR CLB and LVR MCT.
• How is an armed autobrake mode shown in the FMA first column? BRK LO or BRK MED in cyan (BRK MAX on the third line). An active autobrake mode is green in a white box.

Lateral modes

• What lateral guidance does RWY mode provide? Guidance on the take-off roll up to 30 ft RA, if a localizer signal is available. Above 30 ft it becomes RWY TRK.
• When is RWY TRK shown? When runway mode continues once airborne, above 30 ft RA. The aircraft holds the track it had at lift-off.
• What does NAV shown in blue mean? NAV mode is armed. It turns green when engaged.
• When is APP NAV shown? When NAV mode is armed or engaged during a non-ILS approach. It is the lateral part of a managed non-precision approach.
• Which lateral mode engages on a go-around? GA TRK. It holds the track at go-around initiation.

Engagement

• On the FMA, what does 1FD1 mean? Flight director 2 has failed but both FDs are selected on. Both PFDs then show FD 1's orders.
• What does A/THR shown in blue in the FMA fifth column mean? Autothrust is armed but not active, so thrust follows lever position. White A/THR means active.
• Which condition, together with at least one FD on and the levers in FLX, arms autothrust? A FLEX temperature entered in the MCDU. Without a FLEX temperature, the FLX detent will not arm A/THR.
• Pushing the A/THR pushbutton engages autothrust when the levers are where? In the engagement range: below the climb detent (or below MCT with one engine out). Alpha floor also engages autothrust.

Autoland warning

• Below what height does the red AUTOLAND warning light operate in LAND mode? 200 ft RA. It flashes with a triple click.
• Which localizer deviation triggers the AUTOLAND warning (above 15 ft RA)? 1/4 dot. A glide deviation of 1 dot above 100 ft RA also triggers it.
• Which radio altimeter disagreement triggers the AUTOLAND warning? More than 15 ft between the radio altimeters. Losing both APs below 200 ft also triggers it.

22 Auto Flight - Flight Management 32 questions

The INIT, PROG, FUEL PRED and RAD NAV pages: what each field means and how the FMGC computes its fuel figures.

INIT A

• What two main things is the MCDU INIT A page used for? Initialising the flight plan and aligning the inertial reference system. Weights and fuel go on INIT B.
• When does the ALTN/CO RTE field on INIT A become available? Once a primary destination is entered in FROM/TO. A preferred alternate stored with the destination is shown automatically.
• If no cruise flight level is entered on INIT A, what is the consequence on the ground? The system provides no predictions. The cruise temperature, if not entered, is assumed to be ISA.
• What happens when a new FROM/TO pair is entered on INIT A? Any previously entered route is deleted and the route selection page is called. A new city pair starts a new flight plan.
• After engine start, where does an uplinked flight plan from INIT REQUEST go? To the secondary flight plan, to be inserted or rejected manually. Before engine start it is inserted automatically if no active flight plan exists.
• What is the default tropopause altitude on INIT A? 36 090 ft. It can be modified up to 60 000 ft.

INIT B

• When does the INIT B page automatically change to the FUEL PRED page? After the first engine is started. From then on the FMGC uses fuel on board for its predictions.
• What is the usual default taxi fuel value on INIT B? 200 kg (400 lb). It can be adjusted.
• Before any entry, what does FINAL TIME typically default to on INIT B? 30 minutes. The default comes from the airline fuel policy.
• For the final reserve computation, what holding conditions does the FMGS assume by default? 1 500 ft AGL, CONF 1, at maximum endurance speed. These defaults can be changed in the airline fuel policy.
• By default, what is the MIN DEST FOB equal to? ALTN fuel + FINAL fuel. Entering a lower value triggers CHECK MIN DEST FOB.
• What must be entered on INIT B to obtain a speed profile and predictions? ZFW and ZFWCG. Block fuel is also a mandatory entry.
• When the block fuel is entered on INIT B, what does the page title change to? INIT FUEL PREDICTION. Using FUEL PLANNING instead changes it to INIT FUEL PLANNING.
• On INIT B, how is a headwind entered in the TRIP WIND field? With a prefix –, H or HD. +, T or TL means a tailwind.
• How is EXTRA fuel computed on INIT B? BLOCK – (TAXI + TRIP + RSV + MIN DEST FOB). After engine start the same formula uses FOB instead of BLOCK.

PROG

• On the PROG page, what happens to the CRZ FL if the crew sets a higher altitude on the FCU? It is adjusted up to the new altitude and a scratchpad message appears. CRZ cannot be lower than the FCU altitude.
• What minimum estimated cruise time does the FMGC assume when computing OPT FL? 15 minutes. OPT depends on weight, cost index, temperature and wind.
• What buffet margin does REC MAX FL provide? 0.3 g. It also ensures a minimum climb rate at max climb thrust and level flight at max cruise thrust.
• What is the upper limit of REC MAX on the PROG page? FL398. It is computed assuming anti-ice off.
• On the PROG BRG/DIST field, what does the entry ESSA/270/20 mean? A point 20 NM west (bearing 270) of ESSA. This is a place/bearing/distance (PBD) entry.
• What does ACCUR HIGH on the PROG page mean? The FMS navigation accuracy meets the criteria of the area currently flown. LOW means it does not meet them.
• What scratchpad message appears when GPS PRIMARY is no longer available? GPS PRIMARY LOST. The GPS PRIMARY field on PROG then turns blank.

FUEL PRED

• On the FUEL PRED page, when does the destination EFOB turn amber? When it becomes less than the MIN DEST FOB. This alerts the crew that fuel is getting short of their plan.
• After take-off, what happens to the route reserve on the FUEL PRED page? It is dashed and the fuel is added to EXTRA. Contingency is part of extra once airborne.
• What assumptions does the FMGC use to compute alternate fuel? Cost index 0 and the default cruise flight level. If the crew enters a different ALTN fuel, the alternate time is dashed.
• Which sensor sources can the FMGS use to compute fuel on board? Fuel flow and fuel quantity sensors, fuel flow only, or fuel quantity only. The source is shown as /FF+FQ, /FF or /FQ.
• If after engine start the ZFWCG is missing, what CG value does the FMS use by default? 25 %, shown in amber, with INITIALIZE WEIGHT/CG. The crew must then enter the ZFWCG.

RAD NAV

• When is the RAD NAV page blank on both MCDUs? When either RMP is set to NAV. Back-up navigation tuning on the RMP takes over.
• Within what distance of destination (from climb phase on) is the destination ILS autotuned? 250 NM. The ILS for the departure runway is also autotuned on the ground.
• What message appears when a manually tuned ILS differs from the one that would be autotuned? RWY-ILS MISMATCH. It warns the crew to check the runway against the ILS.
• What does clearing a manually tuned VOR on the RAD NAV page do? Reverts to the autotuned navaid. Autotuning resumes.
• On the RAD NAV page, what does pressing the ADF/BFO prompt do? Puts the ADF into BFO (beat frequency oscillator) mode. A clear action cancels BFO.

23 Communications 18 questions

Three RMPs, the audio control panels, the cockpit calls and the evacuation signal.

Evacuation

• What happens when EVAC COMMAND is pressed? The EVAC light flashes red and the evacuation horn sounds in the cockpit and cabin. Pressing it a second time cancels the alert.
• With the evacuation selector at CAPT, from where can the evacuation alert be triggered? Only from the cockpit. CAPT & PURS allows it from either.
• What does the HORN SHUT OFF pushbutton silence? The evacuation horn in the cockpit. The cabin alert continues.

Calls

• What happens when the MECH call pushbutton is pressed? A call light comes on at the external power panel and an external horn sounds. The light stays on until reset at the external power panel.
• Which colour light comes on at the flight attendant panel for a FWD or AFT call from the cockpit? Pink. A 'CAPTAIN CALL' message appears and a high/low chime sounds.
• How is an EMER call reset? By turning it from ON to OFF. Normal calls are reset by the flight attendant or ground crew.
• Between which positions does the flight interphone system provide communication? The cockpit and the external service interphone panel near the nose gear. The cabin interphone links cockpit, flight attendants and other stations.

RMP

• How many Radio Management Panels does the A320 have, and where are they? Three: two on the pedestal and one on the overhead panel. Any RMP can tune any VHF transceiver.
• How does RMP 3 tune the transceivers? Through RMP 1 or RMP 2. RMP 3 can control the transceivers through RMP 1 and 2 even when they are switched OFF.
• In the emergency electrical configuration, which RMP works? Only RMP 1. RMP 1 is on the essential supply.
• Besides communication radios, what can the RMPs be used for? As a back-up to the FMGC for tuning radio navigation aids. The guarded NAV key gives access to back-up navigation tuning.
• What does the RMP transfer key do? Tunes the selected radio to the standby frequency and swaps the ACTIVE and STBY windows. The standby frequency is set with the knobs first.
• When does the white SEL light come on on the RMPs? When a transceiver normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another. For example VHF 1 tuned by RMP 2 or 3.

Audio control

• On the audio control panel, what does a flashing amber CALL legend mean? The SELCAL system has detected a call. A buzzer also sounds.
• If a MECH or ATT call on the ACP is not reset, when does the light go off? After 60 seconds. RESET extinguishes CALL, MECH and ATT lights.
• How is a channel selected for reception on the ACP? By pushing the reception knob so it pops out (its white light comes on), then turning it for volume. Pushing it in again deselects reception.
• What does the VOICE pushbutton do? Inhibits the VOR and ADF audio idents. Its green ON light comes on.
• What is the INT/RAD switch? A press-to-talk switch for the boom or oxygen mask microphone. INT is for interphone, RAD for radio transmission.

24 Electrical 52 questions

Two engine generators, the APU generator and external power, in a fixed order of priority; bus ties let one source feed the whole network. The emergency generator, the batteries and the static inverter keep the essential buses alive.

General

• With every switch on the ELEC panel in AUTO (no lights), what is the only manual input normally needed? Pressing EXT PWR to connect ground power. The electrical system is automatic for normal operation; connecting ground power is the one routine action.

Priorities

• Which sources do GEN 1 and GEN 2 have priority over when they are operating? Both the APU generator and external power. Engine generators come first, then external power, then the APU generator.
• With the EXT PWR pushbutton ON, which source has priority between external power and the APU generator? External power. External power has priority over the APU generator; the engine generators have priority over both.
• Can a single engine generator supply the entire electrical network? Yes, one engine generator can supply the whole network. Each generator is sized for the whole aircraft; the bus ties connect it to the other side. Galley loads are shed in this case.

Batteries

• What is the normal voltage range shown on the BAT 1 and BAT 2 indicators? 25 to 31 V. The battery voltage indicators sit above the BAT pushbuttons; normal is 25–31 V.
• What do the BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbuttons control? Their battery charge limiters. In AUTO each charge limiter connects or disconnects its battery from the DC BAT BUS automatically.
• In AUTO, the batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS during which phase involving the APU? While the APU is starting (MASTER SW ON and APU speed below 95 %). The batteries help power the APU start and are disconnected again once it is up to speed.
• Below what battery voltage does the charge limiter connect a battery to charge it? 26.5 V. A battery below 26.5 V is connected to the DC BAT BUS so it can be charged.
• With AC BUS 1 and 2 lost, below what speed are the batteries connected to the DC BAT BUS because the emergency generator is not supplying? 100 kt. Below 100 kt the RAT cannot drive the emergency generator, so the batteries take over.
• With no AC BUS 1 or 2 and no emergency generator, what does battery 1 supply? The AC STAT INV BUS, and the AC ESS BUS through the static inverter above 50 kt. Battery 1 drives the static inverter; battery 2 supplies the DC ESS BUS.
• With no AC BUS 1 or 2 and no emergency generator, what does battery 2 supply? The DC ESS BUS. Battery 2 feeds DC essential; battery 1 feeds the static inverter side.
• What happens when a BAT pushbutton is selected OFF? The battery line contactor opens; the hot buses stay supplied. OFF opens the line contactor (white OFF light when the DC BAT BUS is supplied), but the hot buses remain connected to the battery.
• What causes a BAT FAULT light? The battery charging current is outside limits, and the battery contactor opens. An abnormal charging current is a sign of a battery problem, so the battery is isolated.

External power

• When does the green EXT PWR AVAIL light come on? When external power is plugged in and its parameters are normal. AVAIL means ground power is ready; pressing the button then connects it and shows a white ON light.
• Does the EXT PWR ON light go out when the engine generators take over the network? No, the ON light stays on even when the engine generators supply the aircraft. The engine generators have priority, but the ON light remains until the crew deselects external power.

Generators

• When does a generator's line contactor close with the GEN pushbutton ON? When the generator's electrical parameters are normal. The generator control unit checks voltage and frequency before connecting the generator to its bus.
• What does selecting a GEN pushbutton OFF do? Opens the line contactor, de-energises the generator and resets the fault circuit. GEN OFF is reversible, unlike the IDG disconnect.
• What causes the GEN FAULT light? The generator control unit tripping the generator, or the line contactor opening with the pushbutton not OFF. FAULT shows a protection trip or an unexpected open contactor.
• Besides normal parameters, what condition must be met for the APU generator line contactor to close? The external power line contactor must be open. Because external power has priority, the APU generator connects only when external power is not supplying.
• When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited? When APU speed is too low, or when external power or an engine generator is providing power. In these cases an unconnected APU generator is normal, not a fault.

Distribution

• What does the BUS TIE pushbutton in AUTO do? Opens or closes the bus tie contactors automatically to keep both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 supplied. The contactors close as needed so a single source can feed both sides.
• When are both bus tie contactors closed? In single-engine generator operation, or when the APU generator or external power supplies the network. With a single source, both sides must be tied to it.
• What happens when the BUS TIE pushbutton is selected OFF? Both bus tie contactors open, so each AC bus is supplied only by its own engine generator. OFF isolates the two sides from each other.
• From which bus is the AC ESS BUS normally supplied? AC BUS 1. AC ESS FEED in NORMAL supplies the AC ESS BUS from AC BUS 1; ALTN takes it from AC BUS 2.
• If the normal AC ESS feed fails, what happens without crew action? The AC ESS BUS is automatically supplied from AC BUS 2 after 5 seconds. The automatic transfer happens regardless of the AC ESS FEED pushbutton position.
• What does the AC ESS FEED FAULT light indicate? The AC ESS BUS is not electrically supplied. FAULT, with an ECAM caution, means the essential AC bus itself has no power.

Emergency

• In case of total loss of the main generators, what supplies the AC ESS BUS? The emergency generator if available, otherwise the static inverter. The essential bus is kept alive first by the RAT-driven emergency generator, then by the batteries through the static inverter.
• Which condition, together with the loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2, makes the RAT extend automatically? Speed above 100 kt. With both main AC buses lost above 100 kt, the RAT extends and the Blue system drives the emergency generator.
• When is the emergency generator connected to the network after an automatic RAT extension? As soon as its electrical parameters are within tolerance. The generator is brought on line once its voltage and frequency are correct.
• After a manual RAT extension with MAN ON, when is the emergency generator coupled? 3 seconds after the RAT is supplying the emergency generator. MAN ON selects manual RAT extension; coupling follows 3 s after the RAT drives the generator.
• When does the red FAULT light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel come on? When the emergency generator is not supplying power while AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered. It is red because the aircraft is then running on batteries alone.
• During the EMER GEN TEST on the ground with normal AC buses, which buses are NOT powered by the emergency generator? The AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED buses. The test connects AC ESS and DC ESS to the emergency generator, driven by the Blue electric pump; the shed buses lose power.

IDG

• What does pressing a guarded IDG pushbutton do? It disconnects the IDG from its drive shaft. The switches are spring-loaded out; pressing disconnects the drive mechanically.
• Who can reconnect a disconnected IDG? Only maintenance personnel. The disconnection cannot be reversed from the cockpit.
• Above what IDG oil outlet temperature does the IDG FAULT light come on? 185 °C. An IDG oil overheat above 185 °C, or low IDG oil pressure, gives the FAULT light.
• When is the IDG low oil pressure fault inhibited? At low engine speed, with N2 below 14 %. A stopped or slow engine naturally has low IDG oil pressure, so the alert is inhibited.

Commercial loads

• With GALY & CAB in AUTO, when is the cabin power shed? When only one generator is operating. One generator cannot comfortably carry the galleys; with the APU generator or external power all galleys are available.
• When does the GALY & CAB FAULT light come on? When any generator's load exceeds 100 % of its rated output. The FAULT warns the crew that cabin loads are overloading the generators.
• Which of these is switched off by the COMMERCIAL pushbutton? The water and toilet system. COMMERCIAL covers cabin and cargo lights, water and toilet, drain mast ice protection, galley, entertainment and cargo loading.

Smoke

• What happens when GEN 1 LINE is selected OFF? GEN 1's line contactor opens; GEN 1 keeps running and supplies one fuel pump in each wing directly. AC BUS 1 is then supplied from GEN 2 through the bus ties.
• What does the amber SMOKE light on the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate? Smoke in the avionics ventilation duct. GEN 1 LINE is part of the smoke drill used to isolate an electrical smoke source.

Indications

• On the ECAM ELEC page, when is the battery current shown in amber? When the battery is discharging at more than 5 A. A large discharge means the battery is carrying loads it should not.
• On the ELEC page, what does an amber arrow pointing away from the battery mean? The contactor is closed and the battery is discharging at more than 1 A. A green arrow is charging above 1 A; amber is discharging above 1 A; no line is an open contactor.
• When is the DC BAT voltage shown in amber on the ELEC page? Below 25 V. DC BAT below 25 V is amber.
• What does an amber SHED next to a bus on the ELEC page mean? The AC or DC ESS SHED bus is in shed mode. Shedding removes the less essential loads from the essential network.
• When is a TR's current shown in amber on the ELEC page? When it is below 5 A. A TR delivering almost no current is likely not supplying its bus.
• Outside what voltage range is a generator's voltage shown in amber? 110 V to 120 V. Generator voltage is amber below 110 V or above 120 V.
• Outside what frequency range is a generator's frequency shown in amber? 390 Hz to 410 Hz. Frequency is amber below 390 Hz or above 410 Hz.
• When is a generator load shown in amber on the ELEC page? Above 100 %. Over 100 % load is beyond the rated output.
• On the ELEC page, what does amber APU GEN with a white OFF show? The APU master switch is ON but the APU GEN pushbutton is off. The APU is running but its generator has been deselected.
• Between what IDG oil outlet temperatures does the indication pulse on the ELEC page? 147 °C to 180 °C. It pulses above 147 °C as an advisory and turns amber above 180 °C.
• What does an amber DISC under the IDG legend on the ELEC page mean? The IDG is disconnected. LO PR would mean low IDG oil pressure; DISC means the drive has been disconnected.

25 Equipment 2 questions

The emergency locator transmitter.

ELT

• On what frequency can the ELT distress signal be heard in the cockpit when tuned on the RMP? 121.500 MHz. The ELT can trigger on impact or be activated from the cockpit.
• Where is the additional portable ELT usually stowed? In the cockpit wardrobe. The fixed ELT is mounted at the back of the aircraft.

26 Fire Protection 22 questions

Fire loops and two bottles per engine, fire loops and one bottle for the APU, smoke detection elsewhere. Releasing a fire pushbutton isolates; the agent is a separate action.

Detection

• Which areas have fire and overheat detection (as opposed to smoke detection)? Both engines and the APU. Cargo, lavatories and avionics have smoke detection; engines and APU have fire and overheat detection.
• Which of these areas has smoke detection? The lavatories. Smoke detection covers the cargo compartments, the lavatories and the avionics bay.

Extinguishing

• Which areas have a fire extinguishing system controlled from the cockpit? The engines, the APU and the cargo compartments. Extinguishers are provided for the engines, the APU and the cargo compartment.
• When does the white SQUIB light on an AGENT pushbutton come on? After the corresponding FIRE pushbutton has been released. Releasing the FIRE pushbutton arms the squibs; pressing AGENT then discharges the bottle.
• What does the amber DISCH light on an AGENT pushbutton mean? That bottle has been used and has lost pressure. DISCH confirms the bottle is empty.

Engine fire

• How is a guarded ENG FIRE pushbutton released? By pushing it in, after which it pops out. The pushbutton is normally pushed in and guarded; a push makes it pop out.
• Which fuel valve closes when an ENG FIRE pushbutton is released? The low-pressure fuel valve. It also closes the hydraulic fire shut-off valve, the engine bleed valve and the pack flow control valve.
• What does releasing an ENG FIRE pushbutton do to the FADEC? It cuts off the FADEC power supply. Removing FADEC power is part of isolating the engine.
• What does releasing an ENG FIRE pushbutton do to the IDG? It deactivates the IDG. The generator on the burning engine is deactivated.
• Which warning does releasing the ENG FIRE pushbutton stop? The aural fire warning. The red light on the pushbutton stays on as long as the fire is detected.
• When does the red light in an ENG FIRE pushbutton come on? As soon as the fire warning is activated, whatever the pushbutton position. The light marks which engine is burning.

Tests

• Pressing an ENG FIRE TEST button gives which aural warning? A continuous repetitive chime. The test also flashes MASTER WARN and shows ENG FIRE on the ECAM.
• During an ENG FIRE TEST, which lights come on on the pedestal ENG panel? The red FIRE lights. The test exercises both the overhead and the pedestal fire indications.
• During an ENG FIRE TEST, when do the SQUIB lights come on? If the discharge supplies are available. SQUIB in the test confirms the squib circuit is supplied; DISCH lights also come on amber.

APU fire

• What does releasing the APU FIRE pushbutton do to the APU itself? It shuts the APU down. The APU FIRE pushbutton both shuts the APU down and isolates it.
• Which pneumatic valves close when the APU FIRE pushbutton is released? The APU bleed valve and the cross bleed valve. It also closes the low-pressure fuel valve, stops the APU fuel pump and shuts off the APU generator.
• What happens to the APU fuel pump when the APU FIRE pushbutton is released? It is turned off. Cutting the fuel supply removes fuel from the fire.
• In which case does an APU fire cause an automatic APU shutdown? On the ground. Fire is listed among the automatic shutdown causes on the ground only; in flight the crew carries out the procedure.

Cargo smoke

• What does the cargo smoke detection system do automatically when smoke is detected? It alerts the crew and closes the isolation valves of that compartment. The agent is discharged by the crew with the DISCH pushbutton.
• How is smoke in a cargo compartment shown on the cargo smoke panel? A red SMOKE light and an ECAM warning. Cargo smoke is a warning (red).
• What does the cargo DISCH pushbutton do? Ignites the squib to discharge the agent into the selected compartment (FWD or AFT). The amber DISCH light then shows the bottle has been discharged.
• Pressing and holding the cargo smoke TEST button does which of the following? Closes the ventilation isolation valves, among other things. The test checks the detectors, lights the red SMOKE and amber DISCH lights and gives the ECAM warning.

27 Flight Controls 87 questions

Seven computers, three laws, and a set of protections in normal law. The numbers here — bank, pitch, load factor, alpha floor, flap speeds — are the ones checkrides ask for. Sidestick priority is here too.

Computers

• In normal operation, which computer commands the ailerons? ELAC 1. ELAC 1 normally drives the ailerons; ELAC 2 drives the elevators and stabiliser.
• In normal operation, which computer commands the elevators and the horizontal stabiliser? ELAC 2. ELAC 2 has pitch; ELAC 1 has the ailerons. Each can take over from the other.
• Which computers provide the aileron droop function? The ELACs. Aileron droop, normal and alternate pitch and roll, direct law and autopilot order acquisition are ELAC functions.
• How many SECs (spoiler elevator computers) are there? Three. SEC 1, 2 and 3 command the spoilers.
• Which SECs can provide alternate and direct pitch control? SEC 1 and SEC 2 only. SEC 3 controls spoilers only; SEC 1 and 2 also back up the elevators and stabiliser.
• Which computers control the speed brakes and ground spoilers? The SECs. The SECs control the spoilers for roll, speed brake and ground spoiler functions.
• Which of these is a FAC function? Wind shear detection. FACs handle rudder trim, rudder travel limit, yaw damping, alternate yaw, flight envelope and speed computations, and wind shear detection.
• How is a flight control computer reset from the overhead panel? By selecting its pushbutton OFF then ON. Cycling the pushbutton OFF then ON resets the computer.
• How long is a flight control computer's power-up test, during which its FAULT light is on? 8 seconds. The test runs at power application or after a transient; FAULT goes out when it completes satisfactorily.

Laws

• Does the A320 remain in normal law after a single failure of a sensor, electrical system, hydraulic system or flight control computer? Yes, normal law is kept after a single failure. The redundancy is designed so that a single failure does not degrade the law.
• Which failure mainly leads to direct law? Failure of all three IRs. Losing all three inertial references leaves no attitude data for the protected laws.
• What controls remain in mechanical back-up after loss of all electrical power to the flight controls? The pitch trim wheel and the rudder pedals. The stabiliser and the rudder are mechanically controlled as a last resort.
• Which failure leads to alternate law with reduced protection? Failure of both ELACs. Double ADR or IR failures, both ELACs, one elevator, one sidestick, all spoilers, all SECs or a THS jam all give alternate law.
• Loss of the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems gives which law? Alternate law with reduced protection and mechanical yaw control. Without Green and Yellow, yaw falls back to the mechanical path.
• Failure of all three ADRs gives which law? Alternate law without protection. Without air data, the speed-based protections cannot work.
• In alternate law with the autopilot off, what happens to the law when the landing gear is extended? It changes to direct law. There is no flare mode in alternate law, so direct law gives the pilot a natural feel for landing.
• In alternate law with reduced protection, which protection remains? Load factor protection. Load factor protection stays; α and overspeed protections are lost, replaced by speed stability.
• In alternate law, what does speed stability do? It pushes the nose down near the stall warning speed and pulls it up at high speed, but can be overridden. It is not a protection: sidestick inputs overrule it.
• In alternate law, how is roll controlled? In direct mode, without bank angle protection or turn coordination. Roll becomes direct; yaw damping is still available.
• Above what bank angle does abnormal attitude law engage? 125°. Abnormal attitude law also engages beyond 50° pitch up, 30° pitch down or extreme speeds and angles of attack.
• At what pitch attitudes does abnormal attitude law engage? Above 50° nose up or 30° nose down. These are far beyond the normal law limits of 30° up and 15° down.
• After recovery from abnormal attitude law, what law remains? Pitch and yaw stay in alternate law for the rest of the flight. Flight controls stay degraded after an abnormal attitude.
• Which PFD message tells the crew that the aircraft is in direct law? USE MAN PITCH TRIM in amber. Direct law has no auto trim, so the crew must trim manually.
• In direct law, how is pitch controlled? Sidestick inputs move the elevators directly, with no auto trim. Auto trim and speed stability are lost.

Protections

• At the latest, when does High Speed Protection become active? At VMO + 6 kt or MMO + 0.015. It can activate from VMO/MMO depending on conditions, and at the latest at VMO + 6 kt / MMO + 0.015.
• At what speed does the autopilot disconnect automatically in high speed protection? VMO + 15 kt or MMO + 0.04. The AP disconnects at VMO + 15 kt / MMO + 0.04.
• With full nose-down stick held in high speed protection, to about what speed is the aircraft limited? Around VMO + 16 kt and MMO + 0.04. Pilot nose-down authority is reduced so the speed is held near VMO + 16 kt.
• In high speed protection, what happens to the bank angle when the sidestick is released? It returns to 0°. Outside HSP a released stick holds up to 33°; in HSP the aircraft rolls level.
• To what is the bank angle limit reduced in high speed protection? 40°. The normal 67° limit drops to 40° in high speed protection.
• What happens to the pitch trim in high speed protection? It is frozen. Auto trim stops so the nose-up correction is not trimmed out.
• Which of these is part of the recommended recovery from high speed protection? Extend the speed brakes. Extend speed brakes, increase pitch and reduce thrust (or use A/THR).
• Above 100 ft RA, when does the high angle of attack protection engage? When the angle of attack exceeds α prot. Below 100 ft RA on landing it engages when α max is reached.
• Once α exceeds α prot, how does the angle of attack relate to the sidestick? The angle of attack becomes proportional to stick deflection, and auto trim stops. Neutral stick holds α prot; full aft stick gives α max.
• Can a pilot stall an A320 in normal law by pulling the sidestick fully back? No, α max cannot be exceeded. Full aft stick holds α max, a small margin from the stall angle of attack.
• To what is the bank angle limit reduced when high angle of attack protection is active? 45°. The 67° limit is reduced to 45° in high angle of attack protection.
• What is VLS? The lowest selectable speed, giving an appropriate margin to the stall. The autopilot will not go below VLS with autothrust active.
• What is green dot speed? The best lift-to-drag ratio speed in the clean configuration. Green dot is used as the engine-out and holding reference in the clean configuration.
• What is the load factor limit in normal law in the clean configuration? –1.0 g to +2.5 g. Load factor protection lets the pilot pull full aft without overstressing the aircraft.
• What is the load factor limit in normal law with slats or flaps extended? 0 g to +2.0 g. The limit is lower with high lift devices extended.
• When does the G LOAD indication appear in amber on the lower ECAM? Above 1.4 g or below 0.7 g for more than 2 seconds. It appears on the system display as a crew awareness cue.
• In CONF 0 to 3, what is the nose-up pitch attitude limit? 30°, reduced progressively to 25° at low speed. In CONF FULL the limit is 25°, reduced to 20° at low speed.
• What is the nose-down pitch attitude limit? 15°. Pitch is limited to 15° nose down.
• At what pitch attitudes do the flight director bars disappear? Above 25° up or 13° down. They return at 22° up or 10° down.
• What is the maximum bank angle with the sidestick held fully laterally in normal law? 67°. 67° corresponds to the 2.5 g limit in a level turn.
• In normal law the sidestick is released at 50° of bank. What happens? The bank reduces automatically to 33° and is held there. Up to 33° the bank is held with a neutral stick; above it, the aircraft rolls back to 33°.
• Above what bank angle does the autopilot disconnect and the FD bars disappear? 45°. They return below 40°.
• After take-off, up to what radio height is the reactive windshear warning available? 1 300 ft RA. It starts a few seconds after lift-off. On landing it is available from 1 300 ft RA down to 50 ft RA, with at least CONF 1.
• How is a predictive or reactive windshear warning presented? A red WINDSHEAR message on both PFDs and the voice 'WINDSHEAR' three times. The crew sets TOGA and follows the SRS pitch order on the FD.
• What is the low energy aural alert? 'SPEED SPEED SPEED'. It asks the crew to increase thrust to recover a positive flight path.
• In which configurations is the low energy warning available? CONF 2, 3 and FULL. It is computed by the FAC from configuration, deceleration and flight path angle.
• In which height band is the low energy warning available (outside it, it is inhibited)? Between 100 ft and 2 000 ft RA. It is inhibited below 100 ft RA and above 2 000 ft RA, among other conditions.

Alpha floor

• What is α floor in CONF 0? 9.5°. α floor is 9.5° clean, 15° in CONF 1 and 2, 14° in CONF 3 and 13° in CONF FULL.
• What is α floor in CONF FULL? 13°. It falls as flaps extend: 15° in CONF 1/2, 14° in CONF 3, 13° in CONF FULL.
• When can alpha floor engage? From lift-off until 100 ft RA before landing. It is armed through the flight, but not in the last 100 ft before touchdown.
• Besides α floor itself, what other trigger can activate alpha floor? Sidestick deflection above 14° with high angle of attack or pitch attitude protection active. A large aft stick input in a protection is treated as a sign the pilot needs thrust.
• When is alpha floor inhibited? Above Mach 0.6, or with the TCAS mode engaged. TCAS manoeuvres and high Mach are excluded.
• What does alpha floor do to the thrust? Sets TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position. Thrust lever positions are ignored when alpha floor is active.
• How is alpha floor shown on the FMA? A.FLOOR with a flashing amber box. It appears in the first (autothrust) column.
• After alpha floor, what does the FMA show when TOGA thrust remains locked? TOGA LK. TOGA LK stays until the crew disconnects autothrust, sets the levers and re-engages A/THR.

Indications

• On the F/CTL page, when is a spoiler shown as a green triangle? When it is deflected more than 2.5°. A green line shows a retracted spoiler.
• What does an amber PITCH TRIM legend on the F/CTL page mean? The pitch trim is jammed. A jammed THS is one of the causes of alternate law.
• On the F/CTL page, what does an amber rudder travel limiter indication mean? Both rudder travel limiters have failed. The rudder travel limiter reduces rudder authority as speed increases.
• On the F/CTL page, what does an amber ELAC or SEC number mean? That computer has failed or is switched OFF. Green numbers show available computers.

High lift

• How many FLAPS lever positions are there? Five: 0, 1, 2, 3 and FULL. Intermediate lever positions cannot be selected.
• What slat angle is set in CONF 1? 18°. CONF 1 is 18° slats with 0° flaps in flight, or 10° flaps (1+F).
• What slat and flap angles are set in CONF FULL? 27° slats and 40° flaps. FULL is the normal landing configuration.
• What slat and flap angles are set in CONF 2? 22° slats and 15° flaps. CONF 2 and CONF 3 share 22° slats.
• What is the maximum speed in CONF 1? 230 kt. VFE is 230 kt in CONF 1, 215 kt in CONF 2, 185 kt in CONF 3, 177 kt in CONF FULL.
• What is the maximum speed in CONF 2? 215 kt. VFE CONF 2 is 215 kt.
• What is the maximum speed in CONF 3? 185 kt. VFE CONF 3 is 185 kt.
• What is the maximum speed in CONF FULL? 177 kt. VFE CONF FULL is 177 kt.
• Why are there stops at FLAPS lever positions 1 and 3? To prevent excessive flap or slat travel being selected in a single action. The lever must also be pulled out of each detent before it can move.
• After a CONF 1+F take-off, if CONF 0 is not selected, when do the flaps retract automatically? At 210 kt. The automatic retraction protects the flaps from overspeed.
• After flap retraction, when does CONF 1+F become available again (without having selected 2, 3 or FULL)? When the airspeed is 100 kt or less. From CONF 0 in flight, CONF 1 gives slats only.

Speed brakes

• Where is there a detent on the SPEED BRAKE lever? At the ½ position. The lever has to be pushed down to move to the selected position.
• How are the ground spoilers armed? By pulling the SPEED BRAKE lever up in the RET position. Armed ground spoilers extend at landing or in a rejected take-off.
• If the ground spoilers are not armed, what else makes them extend automatically at landing? Selecting reverse thrust. Reverse selection also triggers automatic ground spoiler extension.

Rudder

• What effect does the RUD TRIM rotary switch have with the autopilot engaged? None. The rudder trim switch and the RESET pushbutton are inactive with the AP engaged.
• At what rate does the rudder trim RESET pushbutton return the trim to zero? 1.5° per second. The trim runs back at 1.5°/s.
• What is the range of the rudder trim position indicator? 0 to 20° left or right. The indicator shows the direction (L or R) and value.

Pitch trim

• What priority does the mechanical pitch trim wheel have over electric trim? The trim wheel has priority over electrical control. The wheels give direct mechanical control of the THS.
• What happens to the autopilot if a pilot moves the pitch trim wheel in flight? It disconnects. Manual trim inputs and autopilot cannot coexist.
• Does using the pitch trim wheel disconnect the ELACs? No, so the computers stay synchronised with the manually selected position. Keeping the ELACs engaged avoids a jump when automatic trim resumes.
• With auto trim in normal law and a neutral sidestick, what does the system maintain in level flight? 1 g, with no pilot correction needed for speed, turns or configuration. Auto trim works with the load factor demand law, even with the autopilot off.

Sidestick priority

• With sidestick priority, where does the red arrow light come on? In front of the pilot who is losing authority. A green CAPT or F/O light shows the side that has priority while the other stick is moved.
• What happens when both pilots move their sidesticks at the same time with no priority taken? Both green CAPT and F/O lights flash. A 'DUAL INPUT' voice alert is also given in the real aircraft.
• What aural message is given when a pilot takes sidestick priority? 'PRIORITY LEFT' or 'PRIORITY RIGHT'. It is given each time priority is taken.

28 Fuel 27 questions

Centre tank first, then the inner tanks down to 750 kg, then the outer tanks transfer inwards. Two pumps per wing tank and a crossfeed valve link the sides.

Tanks

• What is the capacity of each of the two outer tanks on the A320? 1 760 litres (about 1 408 kg). Outer tanks are the small cells near the wing tips.
• What is the capacity of each inner tank on the A320? 13 849 litres (about 11 079 kg). The inner tanks are the largest single tanks, one in each wing.
• What is the capacity of the centre tank on the A320? 8 250 litres (about 6 600 kg). The centre tank sits in the wing box between the wings.

Sequence

• Which tank is emptied first in normal operation? The centre tank. Keeping the wing tanks full longest relieves wing bending loads.
• Down to what quantity are the inner tanks used before the outer tank fuel is transferred? 750 kg in each inner tank. At 750 kg in an inner tank, the outer tank fuel starts transferring into it.
• How is outer tank fuel used? It is transferred into the inner tanks. Outer tanks have no engine feed of their own; their fuel drains into the inner tanks.

Crossfeed

• What does the crossfeed capability allow? Both engines to be fed from one side, or one engine to be fed from both sides. Each engine is normally fed by its own side; the crossfeed valve links the two.
• On the X FEED pushbutton, what does the green OPEN light indicate? The crossfeed valve is fully open. ON commands the valve open; the green OPEN light confirms it has reached fully open.

Pumps

• In normal operation, what is done with the wing tank pumps during flight? They stay on throughout the flight. The wing pumps are left on; the system manages the feed sequence.
• What does a wing tank pump pushbutton show when selected OFF? A white OFF light. OFF switches the pump off and lights white OFF.
• When does a wing tank pump FAULT light come on? When the pump pressure drops and the pump is not selected OFF. FAULT, with an ECAM caution, is low delivery pressure on a pump that should be running.

Centre tank

• On the A320neo, what has replaced the traditional centre tank pumps? Jet pumps, with only their valves controlled by the crew. The neo transfers centre tank fuel with jet pumps; the CTR TK pushbuttons control valves.
• On the A320neo in AUTO, when do the centre-to-inner transfer valves open? When the inner tank is 500 kg below its capacity. Centre tank fuel tops up the inner tanks once they have used 500 kg.
• On the A320neo in AUTO, when do the centre-to-inner transfer valves close? When the inner tank is full, or 5 minutes after the centre tank low level is reached. The 5-minute delay after the low level lets the last centre fuel be transferred.
• What is the centre tank low fuel level used by the transfer logic? 130 kg. Transfer stops 5 minutes after the centre tank reaches 130 kg.
• What does the fuel MODE SEL in MAN allow? Manual control of the centre tank transfer with the centre tank pushbuttons. In MAN, ON opens the centre tank valve and OFF closes it.
• What triggers the fuel MODE SEL FAULT light? A wing tank below 5 000 kg while the centre tank still holds more than 250 kg. It indicates centre tank fuel is not being transferred as it should.
• What does a CTR TK pushbutton show when selected OFF? A white OFF light, with the valve closed. OFF closes the centre tank valve.

Indications

• On the FUEL page, what does an amber LO at a wing pump mean? The pump contactor is off. An amber crossline would show low pressure with the contactor on.
• On the FUEL page, what does an amber crossline at an engine low-pressure valve mean? The valve is closed while the engine master switch is ON. Closed with the master ON is a disagreement that would starve the engine.
• On the FUEL page, what does an amber inline crossfeed valve mean? The valve is open while the X FEED selector is off. Amber marks disagreement between valve and switch.
• In what fuel temperature range are the FUEL page temperatures shown green without advisory? –40 °C to +45 °C. Outside this range the temperature becomes an advisory.
• When is a tank's fuel temperature not displayed on the FUEL page? When the fuel temperature sensor is dry. No fuel at the sensor means no valid fuel temperature.
• What do two dashes on the last digits of a tank quantity mean? The fuel quantity is inaccurate. The quantity is still shown but its last digits cannot be trusted.
• What does an amber box around the fuel on board (FOB) mean? Some fuel is not usable, for example a failed centre transfer or a low inner tank level. Causes include a failed or off centre tank pump, transfer valves that cannot open, a low inner tank level or an unusable ACT.
• When is an engine's fuel used figure shown in amber on the FUEL page? When the engine is below idle. Fuel used counts from engine start until electrical power off.
• What does an amber XX in place of the total fuel flow mean? There is no fuel flow data. XX is the ECAM's way of saying 'no valid data'.

29 Hydraulic 28 questions

Green, Yellow and Blue, fully independent. Engine pumps drive Green and Yellow, an electric pump drives Blue, the PTU shares power between Green and Yellow, and the RAT drives Blue in an emergency.

Architecture

• How many hydraulic systems does the A320 have, and how are they related? Three fully independent systems: Green, Yellow and Blue. Each system has its own reservoir and pumps; no fluid passes between them.

Pumps

• What pressurises the Green system in normal operation? An engine-driven pump on engine 1. Green and Yellow each have one engine-driven pump; Green's is on engine 1.
• What pressurises the Yellow system in normal operation? An engine-driven pump on engine 2. Yellow's engine-driven pump is on engine 2.
• What pressurises the Blue system in normal operation? An electric pump. Blue has no engine-driven pump. The RAT is its emergency source.
• What does selecting an ENG PUMP pushbutton OFF do? Deactivates (depressurises) the pump so it generates no hydraulic power. OFF depressurises the pump; the fire valve is closed by the engine fire pushbutton, not this one.
• With the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO and AC power available, when does the pump run? In flight, or on the ground with one engine running (or with BLUE PUMP OVRD pressed on the maintenance panel). The Blue pump does not run on the ground with both engines stopped unless overridden.
• With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP OFF, what makes it start automatically? Setting the cargo door manual selector valve lever to OPEN or CLOSE. The pump starts to work the cargo door.
• When the Yellow electric pump runs for the cargo doors, which Yellow functions remain available? Alternate braking and engine 2 reverse. Other Yellow functions are inhibited while the cargo door is being moved.

PTU

• Engine 1 is not running (or the Green pump has failed). How can the Green system be pressurised? By the reversible PTU, from the Yellow system. The PTU uses Yellow pressure to drive a pump in the Green system.
• With the PTU in AUTO, when does it run? When the differential pressure between Green and Yellow exceeds 500 psi. It is bidirectional and works towards whichever of the two is lower.
• During the first engine start, what happens to the PTU? It is inhibited. The PTU is inhibited during the first engine start.
• During the second engine start, what happens to the PTU? It is automatically tested. The second start is when the PTU is tested automatically.
• What does selecting the PTU OFF do? Closes both PTU valves, stopping power transfer. OFF stops all transfer in both directions.
• What causes a PTU FAULT light? A Green or Yellow reservoir overheat, low air pressure or low fluid level. The PTU is protected by watching the reservoirs of the two systems it links.

RAT

• In a dual engine failure or total electrical power loss, which system does the RAT pressurise? Blue. The RAT drives a pump in the Blue system, which in turn can drive the emergency generator.
• When can the crew extend the RAT with RAT MAN ON? At any time. RAT MAN ON extends it manually at any time; it extends automatically when AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost.

Ground

• On the ground, which systems can be pressurised by electric pumps? Blue and Yellow. Green has no electric pump; on the ground it can be pressurised by the PTU from Yellow.
• What is the Yellow system hand pump used for? Operating the cargo doors from the ground. The hand pump lets the cargo doors be moved without electrical power.

Faults

• Which of these does NOT cause an ENG PUMP FAULT light? A PTU in operation. FAULT is caused by low reservoir level, reservoir overheat, low reservoir air pressure or low pump pressure.
• When is the low pump pressure part of the ENG PUMP FAULT inhibited? On the ground with the engine stopped. A stopped engine's pump naturally has no pressure.
• After a hydraulic overheat, does selecting the pump OFF extinguish the FAULT light? No, it stays on as long as the overheat lasts. Other faults go out when OFF is selected; an overheat FAULT remains until the overheat ends.

Indications

• Below what system pressure is a hydraulic system shown in amber on the HYD page? 1 450 psi. Normal pressure is about 3 000 psi; below 1 450 psi the system is considered low.
• On the HYD page, how is a closed hydraulic fire valve shown? Amber crossline. A closed fire valve cuts the fluid supply to that engine's pump.
• What does an amber OVHT at a reservoir on the HYD page mean? The temperature of the returning fluid is above normal. Reservoir OVHT is about the return fluid; a separate OVHT next to an electric pump concerns that pump.
• What does a green RAT arrow on the HYD page show? The RAT is deployed. White is stowed, green deployed, amber not available.
• On the HYD page, green PTU arrows all pointing to the left (towards Green) mean what? The PTU is supplying the Green system. Arrows point to the system receiving power.
• On the HYD page, what does an amber LO at an engine pump mean? The pump is ON but the hydraulic pressure is low. An amber crossline would instead show the pump selected OFF.
• What does an amber arrow at the Yellow electric pump on the HYD page mean? The pump is ON and the Yellow pressure is low. White is off, green on and normal, amber on with low pressure.

30 Ice and Rain Protection 39 questions

Hot air for the outer slats and the engine intakes; electrical heat for windows, probes and the drain mast. Know what icing conditions are, and what each valve does when power fails.

Icing conditions

• Icing conditions exist when the OAT (or TAT in flight) is at or below what value, with visible moisture? 10 °C. Visible moisture includes cloud, fog of 1 600 m visibility or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals.
• In the definition of icing conditions, fog counts as visible moisture when the visibility is at or below what? 1 600 m (1 SM). Fog of 1 600 m or less is visible moisture for icing purposes.
• On the ground at or below 10 °C OAT, which surface condition also counts as icing conditions, even without visible moisture in the air? Snow, standing water or slush on ramps, taxiways or runways that may be ingested or freeze on the engines. Contaminants can be thrown up into the engines and freeze on nacelles or probes.

Wing anti-ice

• Which areas are protected by hot air? The three outboard slats of each wing and the engine air intakes. Windows, sensors, probes and the drain mast are heated electrically.
• Which slats are heated by wing anti-ice? Slats 3, 4 and 5 of each wing. Only the three outboard slats are protected.
• How is hot air supplied to the slats of each wing? Through one valve in each wing. The WING pushbutton controls both valves.
• What happens when WING anti-ice is selected ON on the ground? A 30-second test sequence is run. Continuous heating without airflow would overheat the slats.
• What happens if a leak is detected while wing anti-ice is in use? The affected side's wing anti-ice valve closes automatically. Only the leaking side is isolated.
• What does selecting wing anti-ice do to the engine limits? The N1 (or EPR) limit is reduced and the idle N1 (or EPR) is increased. The extra bleed demand needs more idle and leaves less maximum thrust.
• If the electrical supply fails, what do the wing anti-ice valves do? They close. This is the opposite of the engine anti-ice valves, which open on electrical failure.
• Which ECAM memo appears when WING anti-ice is ON? WING A. ICE. The pushbutton shows a blue ON light.
• What causes the WING anti-ice FAULT light? A valve not in the required position, or low pressure detected. FAULT comes with an ECAM caution.
• In flight, when must wing anti-ice be ON? When there is visible airframe icing on the visual ice indicator or the wipers. Wing anti-ice is used when ice is actually building, not just in icing conditions.

Probes and windows

• Which of these is protected by electrical heating? The waste-water drain mast. Electrical heating protects the cockpit windows, the sensors, pitot probes, static ports and the drain mast.
• How many Window Heat Computers are there? Two, one on each side. They regulate, protect against overheat and indicate faults.
• How does windshield heating operate on the ground? At low power, changing automatically to normal power in flight. The side windows have only one heating level.
• How many Probe Heating Computers are there? Three: Captain, F/O and standby probes. They control and monitor the probes and protect against overheat.
• Which sensors does the probe heating system protect? Pitot heads, static ports, angle of attack probes and TAT probes. All four kinds of sensor are electrically heated (TAT not on the ground).
• On the ground, how are the TAT probes and the pitot heads heated? TAT probes are not heated and pitot heating is at low level. Changeover to normal power is automatic.
• With PROBE/WINDOW HEAT in AUTO, when are the probes and windows heated? When at least one engine is running, or in flight. ON (blue light) heats them permanently, for example before engine start.

Engine anti-ice

• Where does the engine anti-ice air come from? An independent bleed from the high-pressure compressor of each engine. Each nacelle has its own independent supply.
• What type of valve supplies engine anti-ice air? A two-position (open or closed) valve, one per engine. Each is controlled by its own ENG pushbutton.
• What does the engine anti-ice valve do when no air is available (engine not running)? It closes automatically. Without pressure the valve closes.
• If electrical power fails, what do the engine anti-ice valves do? They open. Failing open ensures the intakes stay protected.
• When an engine anti-ice valve opens, which engines have their idle increased if necessary? Both engines. Both idles may rise to give the required bleed pressure.
• When engine anti-ice is ON and its valve is open, what is selected automatically? Continuous ignition, with the IGNITION memo. Continuous ignition protects against flame-out from ice ingestion.
• What causes the ENG anti-ice FAULT light? The valve position disagreeing with the pushbutton selection. FAULT comes with an ECAM caution.
• On the ground, when must engine anti-ice be ON? During all ground operations where icing conditions exist or are anticipated. Engines are vulnerable to ice ingestion on the ground.
• In which flight case is engine anti-ice not required even in icing conditions? In the climb or cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Very cold air holds ice crystals that do not stick.

Rain removal

• On what kind of windshield must the wipers never be used? A dry windshield. Running wipers dry scratches the glass.
• How many speeds do the A320's windshield wipers have? Two (SLOW and FAST). Each side has its own rotary selector; OFF stows the wiper at the base of the window.
• After applying rain repellent, how long does it take for the windows to be covered with the spray? About 30 seconds. Repellent is used in moderate to heavy rain only.
• When is rain repellent inhibited? On the ground with the engines not running. Each press applies a measured quantity; press again to repeat.
• Which use of rain repellent is prohibited? On a dry windshield, or to wash the windshield. On a dry windshield it smears and reduces visibility.

Ice detection

• How many ice detector probes does the ice detection system have, and where are they? Two, on the forward lower fuselage. They detect ice accretion and generate ECAM messages.
• Does the ice detection system switch the engine or wing anti-ice on automatically? No, it does not control them. It only advises the crew through the ECAM.
• Where is the external visual ice indicator? Between the two windshields. The crew uses it to judge visible airframe icing.

Procedures

• When taxiing in icing conditions, when should the flaps be extended? At the runway holding point. Delaying extension keeps contamination out of the mechanism.
• After landing from an approach in icing conditions, when may the flaps be retracted? After the ground crew confirms the flaps and slats are clear of ice. Retracting with ice can damage the mechanism.

31 Indicating and Recording 91 questions

The ECAM and its control panel, the PFD's scales, symbols and flags, the ND and EFIS panel, the clock and the recorders.

Indications

• What does an amber half box around the fuel on board on the E/WD mean? Not all of the displayed fuel is usable. Two dashes on the last digits would mean an inaccurate figure.
• What does an amber F or S on the E/WD flaps display indicate? A hydraulic system failure, wing tip brakes applied, or a slat or flap fault. A blue box shows a selected position while the surfaces are in transit.

ND

• Which ND mode gives a 180° forward view? ARC. ROSE modes give 360°; PLAN is a 360° view used to step through the flight plan.
• In which ND mode can the weather radar image NOT be displayed? PLAN. Weather is shown in all modes except PLAN.
• If the predictive GPWS generates a terrain caution with TERR ON ND off, what happens? The terrain is displayed automatically on the NDs and the ON light comes on. Terrain pops up automatically on a predictive alert.
• How does the crew tell the terrain display from the weather display on the ND? TERR appears in place of TILT in the lower right corner. The two displays share colours, so the label tells them apart.

EFIS

• What range can the barometric reference be set to? 745 hPa to 1 100 hPa. The outer ring switches between hPa and inHg.
• How is the standard altimeter setting selected on the EFIS control panel? By pulling the baro knob, which shows STD. Pushing it from STD brings back the last QNH or QFE.
• Is the hPa/inHg unit selection shown on the PFD? No. Only the value is shown below the altitude scale.
• If there are failures, what ND mode and range does the display default to? ROSE NAV, 80 NM. This gives a usable default picture.
• How many optional data pushbuttons (CSTR, VOR D, WPT, NDB, ARPT) can be active at once? One. Only one optional selection can be active at a time.
• With LS selected, when do the localizer and glideslope deviation diamonds appear? Only when the localizer is in range. LS shows the scales; the diamonds need a valid signal.

Clock

• Which supply is the cockpit clock connected to directly, besides its redundant supplies? The hot battery bus. This keeps the clock running with the aircraft unpowered.
• What does the clock's ET counter measure? Elapsed time, typically flight time, in hours and minutes. CHR measures shorter intervals in minutes and seconds.

Permanent data

• On the ECAM permanent data, what is TAT? SAT plus the temperature rise due to high-speed flight. SAT is the temperature of undisturbed air.
• When is the ISA deviation shown in the ECAM permanent data? Only in STD altitude setting. It is the difference between SAT and the ISA temperature.
• When does the gross weight appear in green on the ECAM permanent data? As soon as the first engine is started. Blue dashes mean no data; dashed last digits mean degraded accuracy.
• On the ECAM, what do amber crosses (XX) in place of a value mean? The value is not available. Amber dashes over the last digits mean degraded accuracy.

STATUS page

• On the STATUS page, in what colour are limitations such as speed and flight level shown? Blue. Procedures (corrections for landing) are also blue; information is green.
• On the STATUS page, how are inoperative systems listed? In amber. Cancelled cautions and maintenance status are white.
• What does an arrow on the STATUS page indicate? The data overflow the page; CLR scrolls to the rest. The crew presses CLR to scroll.
• What does the STATUS page show when there are no status messages? NORMAL. The STS button stays lit while the page is displayed.

CRUISE page

• On the CRUISE page, below what quantity is the oil quantity shown in amber? 1.35 QT. The normal oil quantity range is 0 to 25 QT.
• In what steps is fuel used shown on the CRUISE page? Multiples of 10 kg (20 lb). Amber dashes mean degraded accuracy with invalid fuel flow.
• When does the cabin ΔP pulse green on the CRUISE page? When ΔP is 1.5 psi or more before landing. A remaining differential before landing is worth the crew's attention.

ECAM control panel

• Which of these is a system page button on the ECAM control panel? WHEEL. The pages are ENG, BLEED, PRESS, ELEC, HYD, FUEL, APU, COND, DOOR, WHEEL, F CTL, STS and CRUISE.
• What does the CLR pushbutton do when it is lit? Removes the displayed warning or caution message (or moves on from the status message). It is lit when there is something to clear.
• What does RCL do? Recalls cautions or warnings suppressed by CLR or by flight phase inhibition. Holding RCL for 3 s also recalls cautions cancelled by EMER CANC.
• What does pressing and holding the ALL pushbutton do? Displays all the system pages in turn, at one-second intervals. Releasing ALL leaves the current page on the display.
• What does EMER CANC do to a caution? Cancels it for the rest of the flight, but it still appears on the STATUS page. For warnings, EMER CANC silences the aural alert.
• How are cautions cancelled with EMER CANC recalled? By pressing RCL for 3 seconds. A short press of RCL only recalls cleared messages.
• What does the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton do? Simulates take-off power to check the take-off configuration, with a warning if it is wrong. TO CONFIG NORMAL appears on the E/WD when everything is correct.

Warnings

• What does a flashing red MASTER WARN light indicate? A level 3 warning. It is accompanied by repetitive chimes, sounds or a synthetic voice.
• What does a steady amber MASTER CAUT light with a single chime indicate? A level 2 caution. Pressing the light extinguishes it.
• Which warnings are NOT extinguished by pressing MASTER WARN? Some warnings such as overspeed or stall. These stay until the condition ends.
• Where is the glareshield CHRONO time shown? On the respective ND. Second press freezes it, third press resets and removes it.
• When does the ATC MSG light flash? When an ATC message is received through CPDLC. Pressing ATC MSG cancels the notification.

Recorders

• On the ground, how long are the CVR and DFDR energised after electrical power is applied, with no engine running? Five minutes. They run continuously with an engine running and always in flight.
• When do the CVR and DFDR stop automatically after landing? Five minutes after the last engine is shut down. This preserves the recording of the end of the flight.
• What is fitted to the cockpit voice recorder to help find it after an accident at sea? An underwater locating beacon. The CVR is in the aft part of the aircraft.
• What CVR recording time is required for aircraft built after 2003? 120 minutes. Airbus has fitted 25-hour CVRs since the end of 2020.
• Under what conditions does the CVR ERASE button work? Held 2 s on the ground, with the parking brake on and GND CTRL on. These conditions prevent accidental erasure.
• What is heard during a CVR test? A low-frequency tone through the cockpit loudspeakers. The test needs the CVR energised and the parking brake on.
• When is the passenger address recorded on the CVR? When the PA reception knob is selected on. The CVR records the area microphone, boom mikes, warnings, interphone and radio.

Speed scale

• What is the lowest airspeed the PFD speed scale indicates? 30 kt. Below 30 kt the scale does not move further.
• What does the tip of the yellow speed trend arrow show? The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds at the current rate of change. It appears above 2 kt of trend and disappears below 1 kt.
• Which failure removes the speed trend arrow? Failure of the FACs. The trend is computed by the FACs.
• In what colour is the speed target triangle when it is computed by the FMGC (managed)? Magenta. A speed selected on the FCU is shown in blue.
• Above what Mach number is the Mach number displayed below the speed scale? 0.5. It is shown in green.
• How is the speed at which overspeed protection becomes active shown on the speed scale? A pair of green lines. The red and black strip is VMAX; the amber double bar is VFE NEXT.
• In managed descent with ECON speed, how is the speed target shown? As two magenta half-triangles marking an upper and lower limit. The range is normally ±20 kt around the target, with limits.
• In ECON speed range, if a speed constraint or limit applies, what is the upper margin limited to? ECON speed + 5 kt. Otherwise the upper limit is target + 20 kt, capped by VMAX, VMO – 3 kt or MMO – 0.006.
• When is VLS not displayed on the speed scale? From touchdown until 10 seconds after lift-off. VLS is the top of the amber strip.
• Which strip on the speed scale marks the alpha protection speed? The top of the black and amber striped strip. It is shown in normal pitch law.
• Which strip on the speed scale marks the alpha max speed? The top of the red strip. Alpha max is the highest angle of attack the aircraft will allow in normal law.
• VMAX at the lower end of the red and black strip is the lowest of which speeds? VMO (or the speed corresponding to MMO), VLE and VFE. It is the maximum speed for the current configuration.
• When is the stall warning speed (VSW) displayed? Only in alternate or direct pitch law. In normal law the aircraft cannot be stalled, so VSW is not shown.
• How is V1 shown on the speed scale? As a blue numeral 1. It disappears after lift-off.
• When is the green F (minimum flap retraction speed) shown? With the flap lever in position 2 or 3. S appears with the lever in position 1.
• When is the green S (minimum slat retraction speed) shown? With the flap lever in position 1. F appears in positions 2 and 3.
• How is VFE NEXT shown on the speed scale? An amber double bar (=). It is shown below 15 000 or 20 000 ft depending on the FAC standard.
• How is VR shown on the speed scale? A blue dot. V2 is a magenta triangle.
• With both engines, what speed is targeted after take-off until acceleration altitude? V2 + 10 kt. After an engine failure, V2 is the minimum speed.
• After an engine failure at a speed above V2, what is the maximum speed to maintain? V2 + 15 kt. If the engine is lost below V2, the target is V2.

Altitude

• What appears on the altitude readout when the altitude is negative? NEG. The altitude is a green readout on a grey background.
• When does the altitude window frame change from yellow to amber? When the aircraft deviates from the FCU selected altitude. It alerts the crew to an altitude deviation.
• With an MDA entered in the MCDU, when do the altitude numbers turn amber? When the aircraft descends below the MDA. The MDA is entered on the PERF approach page.
• What is the range of the green vertical deviation symbol on the altitude scale? ±500 ft. It shows the FMGC's descent profile from top of descent to the missed approach point.
• Below what radio height is the radio height shown on the PFD? 2 500 ft. It appears at the bottom of the attitude display.
• With no decision height entered, at what radio height does the radio height turn amber? 400 ft or less. With a DH entered, it turns amber below DH + 100 ft.
• When the aircraft reaches the decision height, how is DH shown? DH flashes amber for 3 seconds, then stays amber. It appears above the radio height.
• Below 50 ft, in what steps does the radio height display change until 10 ft? 5 ft. Every 10 ft down to 50 ft, every 5 ft to 10 ft, then every foot.
• Below what radio height is the red ground reference ribbon displayed on the altitude scale? 570 ft. It shows the ground and sits in the middle of the window at touchdown.

Vertical speed

• Which data does the PFD vertical speed indicator use? Inertial and barometric data, with barometric alone if inertial is lost. The pointer stays at the end of the scale above 6 000 ft/min.
• Below what vertical speed does the digital V/S value disappear? 200 ft/min. It is shown in hundreds of feet per minute.
• Below 1 000 ft RA in a descent, above what vertical speed does the V/S turn amber? 1 200 ft/min. Between 1 000 and 2 500 ft RA the threshold is 2 000 ft/min.

Heading

• When does TRU appear on the PFD heading scale? When true heading is displayed, above 73°N or below 60°S. Magnetic variation is unreliable at high latitudes.
• What does the small green diamond on the heading scale show? The aircraft's actual track. The selected heading or track is a blue triangle.

ILS

• How many degrees of localizer deviation does one dot represent on the PFD? 0.8°. On the glideslope scale one dot is 0.4°.
• How many degrees of glideslope deviation does one dot represent on the PFD? 0.4°. On the localizer scale one dot is 0.8°.
• In what colour is OM shown when passing the outer marker? Blue. MM is amber and AWY (airway or inner marker) is white.
• Where and in what colour is the ILS identification, frequency and DME shown on the PFD? In magenta, to the left of the heading scale. The ILS course pointer is also magenta.
• On a non-precision approach, what does each graduation of the vertical deviation scale represent? 100 ft, with a range of ±200 ft. The scale uses bars instead of dots.

Flags

• When is CHECK ATT shown on both PFDs? When the two PFDs' attitudes differ by at least 5°. An ECAM caution accompanies it.
• What causes the red SPD LIM flag? Both FACs inoperative, or a dual flap/slat channel failure. VLS, S, F, green dot, speed trend, VMAX, VFE next and VSW are lost.
• In QNH, what altitude difference between the two PFDs triggers CHECK ALT? More than 250 ft. With STD selected the threshold is 500 ft.
• What heading difference between the two PFDs triggers CHECK HDG? 5°. It also gives an ECAM caution.
• When is the red RA flag displayed? When both radio altimeters have failed. It replaces the radio height indication.
• Which condition displays the red FD flag? Both FMGCs failed (or both FDs disengaged with the FD pushbutton on and valid attitude). Turning the FD pushbutton off simply removes the bars.
• After a windshear detection, how long does the red WINDSHEAR message remain on the PFD at least? 15 seconds. It comes with an aural windshear warning.
• What does W/S AHEAD on the PFD indicate? The predictive windshear function has detected windshear ahead. It is amber or red depending on the alert level.

32 Landing Gear 37 questions

Green raises and lowers the gear and supplies normal braking; Yellow and its accumulator give alternate braking and the parking brake. Autobrake, anti-skid and the gravity extension sit on top.

Gear

• In which direction do the A320's main landing gears retract? Inward. The two main gears retract inward into the fuselage; the nose gear retracts forward.
• In which direction does the nose gear retract? Forward. Retracting forward means the airflow helps the nose gear down and lock in an emergency extension.
• How many Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs) are there? Two. Two LGCIUs control gear and doors, feed the ECAM, and tell other systems whether the aircraft is on the ground or in flight.
• What does a red UNLK light on the landing gear indicator panel mean? The gear is not locked in the selected position. A green triangle shows down and locked.
• What happens to the main wheels when the landing gear lever is selected UP? The brake system brakes them. Braking stops the wheels spinning before they enter the gear bay.
• Can the gear be retracted with the aircraft on the ground? No. Ground/flight logic prevents retraction on the ground.
• When does the red arrow next to the gear lever come on? When the gear is not down and locked with the aircraft in the landing configuration. It comes with a red ECAM warning.

Brakes

• What type of brakes are fitted to the main wheels? Carbon multidisc brakes. The main wheels have carbon brakes; the nose wheels are unbraked.
• Which hydraulic system supplies normal braking? Green. Normal braking is Green; alternate is Yellow backed up by the accumulator.
• What supplies alternate braking? The Yellow system, backed up by the hydraulic accumulator. If Green is lost, Yellow takes over automatically.
• When do the brake fans run with BRK FAN ON? When the left main gear is down and locked. The amber HOT light shows hot brakes, with an ECAM caution.
• How is the parking brake applied? By pulling the handle and turning it clockwise. PARK BRK then appears on the ECAM. It is released by turning the handle counter-clockwise.
• What does the ACCU PRESS needle on the triple indicator show? The pressure in the Yellow system brake accumulator. The two BRAKES needles show Yellow pressure delivered to the brakes.

Anti-skid

• Below what ground speed is the anti-skid deactivated? 20 kt. At very low speed the anti-skid is no longer needed.
• With A/SKID & N/W STRG ON, what happens if Green pressure is lost? Yellow supplies the brakes automatically and anti-skid remains available. The triple indicator then shows the Yellow brake pressure.
• With A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF, which statement is correct? Yellow supplies the brakes, anti-skid and nosewheel steering are lost, and differential braking remains. The pilot must limit brake pressure using the triple indicator to avoid locking a wheel.

Autobrake

• What are the settings of the A320 autobrake? OFF, LO, MED and MAX. MAX is for take-off; LO and MED are for landing.
• When can MAX autobrake be armed? For take-off only, not while airborne. In a rejected take-off it applies maximum pressure as the ground spoilers deploy.
• What deceleration does MED autobrake target? 3 m/s² (9.8 ft/s²). MED is usually chosen for a shorter, wet or contaminated runway.
• What deceleration does LO autobrake target? 2 m/s² (6.6 ft/s²). LO is usually chosen for a normal-length, dry runway.
• When do LO and MED autobrake start applying pressure after landing? 2 seconds after the ground spoilers deploy. Pressure is applied progressively after the 2-second delay.
• What does the blue ON light on an autobrake pushbutton show? The setting is armed. Blue ON shows positive arming.
• When does the green DECEL light come on? When the actual deceleration reaches 80 % of the selected rate. On a slippery runway, anti-skid may keep DECEL off even though the autobrake is working.

Emergency extension

• How many clockwise turns of the gravity gear extension crank are needed? 3. Three turns isolate the gear hydraulics, vent them, unlock the doors and release the gear.
• From which hydraulic system does the gravity extension crank isolate the landing gear? Green. The gear is normally Green-powered, so it is isolated from Green before free-fall.
• After a gravity extension, what position are the gear doors left in? Open. The doors remain open after a gravity extension.
• What helps the nose gear lock down during a gravity extension? Aerodynamic forces. Springs help the main gear lock; the airflow pushes the forward-retracting nose gear down.
• After a training gravity extension in flight, can the system be reset? Yes, if Green hydraulic pressure is available. The emergency extension system can be reset in flight with Green pressure.

Indications

• On the WHEEL page, what does a red gear triangle mean? The gear is in transit. Green is down and locked; no triangle is up and locked.
• On the WHEEL page, what do amber crosses at the gear indication mean? LGCIU 1 or 2 has failed. Each LGCIU drives one set of indications.
• When does an amber UP LOCK legend appear on the WHEEL page? When a gear uplock is engaged while the gear is down and locked. An uplock engaged with the gear down is a disagreement.
• What does an amber L/G CTL legend on the WHEEL page mean? The gear lever position and the actual gear position disagree. It flags a mismatch between command and position.
• On the WHEEL page, what does a green ACCU ONLY legend mean? Alternate braking is pressurised by the accumulator only. With Yellow pressure available, ACCU PR is shown with an arrow instead.
• When does the AUTO BRK legend flash on the WHEEL page? After the autobrake disengages. Green AUTO BRK shows armed; amber shows a failure.
• On the WHEEL page, when does a green arc appear on the hottest wheel? When one brake exceeds 100 °C. The arc becomes amber when the brake exceeds 300 °C.
• Above what brake temperature is an amber arc shown on the WHEEL page? 300 °C. Above 300 °C the brakes are hot.
• On the WHEEL page, what does the letter Y next to N/W STEERING refer to? Yellow hydraulic system availability for nosewheel steering. Green Y when Yellow is available; amber Y otherwise. Nosewheel steering is a Yellow user.

33 Lights 15 questions

External lights and their automatic logic, interior lighting and the cabin signs.

Exterior lights

• How many strobe lights are there, and where? Three: one on each wing tip and one below the tail cone. The three strobes flash in synchronisation.
• With the STROBE switch in AUTO, when do the strobes come on? When the main gear strut is not compressed. AUTO turns them on once airborne; crews usually select ON just before the take-off roll.
• What does the red flashing beacon signal to the ground crew? That the engines are about to start or are still running. There are two beacons, one on top and one below the fuselage.
• What do the WING lights illuminate? The wing leading edge and the engine air intake, to show ice accumulation. They are scan lights for ice checks at night.
• When do the logo lights illuminate (with NAV & LOGO on)? When the main gear struts are compressed or the slats are extended. They are in the upper surface of each horizontal stabiliser and light the fin.
• Why does the NAV & LOGO switch have positions 1 and 2? To select the first or the second set of dual navigation lights. Both positions also turn on the logo lights.
• When do the runway turn-off lights go off automatically? When the landing gear is retracted. The nose taxi and take-off lights also go off with the gear up.
• With the LAND switch at OFF, what happens to the landing lights? They are switched off but stay extended. RETRACT switches them off and retracts them.
• What does the NOSE switch in T.O. turn on? Both the taxi and the take-off lights. TAXI turns on only the taxi light.

Interior lights

• What does ANN LT in TEST do? Turns on all the annunciator lights and the FCU displays for a test. DIM and BRT set the annunciator brightness.
• What are the positions of the DOME light switch? OFF, DIM and BRT. The dome light illuminates the whole cockpit.

Signs

• With EMER EXIT LT in ARM, which failure turns on the emergency lighting and proximity marking? Loss of AC BUS 1. Normal electrical power failure or a DC SHED ESS BUS failure also turns them on.
• What does an amber OFF light on the EMER EXIT LT switch show? The emergency exit lights are selected OFF. The normal position is ARM.
• What sound accompanies switching the SEAT BELTS signs on? A low-tone chime in the passenger cabin. The chime is barely audible in the cockpit with the door closed.
• With NO SMOKING in AUTO, when do the NO SMOKING and EXIT signs come on? When the landing gear is extended. They go off when the gear is retracted.

34 Navigation 45 questions

Three ADIRUs, the switching panel that gives either pilot a back-up source, the standby instrument, GPWS, the weather radar, the transponders and TCAS.

ADIRS

• How many ADIRUs does the A320 have? Three identical units. Each ADIRU combines an air data reference (ADR) and an inertial reference (IR).
• Inside one ADIRU, does a failure of the ADR cause the IR to fail? No, the ADR and IR operate independently. Each part has its own pushbutton and can be switched off separately.
• What type of gyro system does the IR part of the ADIRU use? Laser gyros. The ADIRU combines an air data system with a laser gyro inertial system.
• Which of these is provided by the ADR? Angle of attack. ADR gives barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and overspeed warnings.
• Which of these is provided by the IR? Ground speed. IR gives attitude, flight path vector, heading, track, acceleration, vertical speed, ground speed and position.
• What is the role of ADIRU 3 in normal operation? A hot spare that can replace ADIRU 1 or 2. ADIRU 1 and 2 supply their own sides.
• In what order are the IR mode selectors normally turned to NAV? 1, then 2, then 3. The ON BATT light comes on briefly as a self-test at the start of alignment.
• What does a steady ON BATT light on the ADIRS panel indicate? One or more ADIRUs are running on battery power. A brief ON BATT at the start of alignment is only a self-test.
• What does the IR mode selector in ATT provide? Attitude, and heading only when entered by the crew; no navigation data. ATT is the reversion mode after a loss of IR alignment.
• In ATT mode, how often must the heading be updated in the MCDU? About every 10 minutes. Without alignment, heading drifts and must be reset.
• If an IR mode selector is moved from NAV to ATT or OFF in flight, what happens? NAV mode is lost for the rest of the flight. Alignment needs the aircraft to be stationary on the ground.

Switching

• With the ATT HDG selector at CAPT 3, what happens? IR 3 replaces IR 1 on PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI. F/O 3 would replace IR 2 instead.
• With the AIR DATA selector at F/O 3, what happens? ADR 3 replaces ADR 2 on PFD 2 and ND 2. The switching panel lets a back-up source be given to either pilot.
• With the EIS DMC selector in NORM, which display unit does DMC 1 supply besides PFD 1 and ND 1? The upper ECAM display. DMC 2 supplies PFD 2, ND 2 and the lower ECAM.
• What do display units show if their DMC fails? INVALID DATA. Selecting DMC 3 on the EIS DMC selector restores them.
• What does the ECAM/ND XFR selector do? Transfers the system display to the Captain's or First Officer's ND. In NORM the system display is on the lower ECAM.

Standby

• Which four classic standby instruments does the ISIS integrate? Compass, horizon, airspeed and altimeter. It also shows barometric pressure, an LS function and bugs.
• How many speed bugs and altitude bugs can be set on the ISIS? Four speed bugs and two altitude bugs. Bugs are set with the BUGS pushbutton and the BARO knob.
• What is the lowest value an ISIS speed bug can be set to? 30 kt. An altitude bug cannot be negative.
• When are ISIS bug values memorised if the pilot does nothing? After 15 seconds without pilot action. Pressing BUGS again also exits and saves.

GPWS

• Between which radio heights do the basic GPWS modes operate? Above 30 ft and below 2 450 ft RA. Basic GPWS uses the radio altimeter.
• What does GPWS mode 1 warn of? Excessive descent rate. Mode 2 is terrain closure rate; mode 3 altitude loss after take-off or go-around.
• What does GPWS mode 4 warn of? Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration. Mode 4 depends on gear and flap configuration.
• What does GPWS mode 5 warn of? Being too far below the glideslope. G/S MODE on the GPWS panel inhibits mode 5.
• What does selecting the GPWS SYS pushbutton OFF inhibit? All basic GPWS modes 1 to 5. TERR OFF inhibits the terrain awareness display and terrain clearance floor instead.
• What does the LDG FLAP 3 pushbutton do? Inhibits mode 4 flap alerts when landing in CONF 3. FLAPS…3 then appears in the landing memo.
• Which position source does the EGPWS terrain function use? FMGC 1. It compares that position with a worldwide terrain database.
• Which situation does the basic GPWS NOT alert for? Flight towards vertically sheer terrain. It also gives no alert for a slow descent into terrain in the landing configuration.

Weather radar

• In WX mode, which colour shows the highest precipitation intensity? Red. Black is the lowest, then green, amber and red.
• In which colour are turbulence areas shown on the weather radar? Magenta. WX+T adds turbulence areas in magenta.
• Which weather radar mode is recommended for normal use? WX+T+HZD. It shows weather, turbulence and hazard prediction areas.
• In the radar's MAP mode, what colour shows cities and mountains? Amber. Black is water and green is ground.
• What does MULTISCAN in AUTO do? Controls tilt automatically, combining two scans at different angles to reduce ground clutter. In MAN the crew sets the tilt with the TILT knob.
• What does the PWS switch control? The predictive windshear function. PWS in AUTO is active when its conditions are met.

Transponder

• How many ATC transponders does the A320 have, and how many operate at once? Two, and only the selected one operates. XPDR 1 or 2 is chosen on the ATC/TCAS panel.
• In enhanced surveillance, which unit supplies the selected altitude and barometric setting that the transponder sends to ATC? The FCU. The ADRs and IRs supply the other parameters, such as altitude, airspeed, heading and ground speed.
• With the ATC mode selector in AUTO, how does the transponder operate on the ground? Only in mode S (selective interrogation). In flight it operates normally.
• With the ATC mode selector in STBY, what is the state of the transponders? Both are powered but do not operate. STBY is used, for example, on stand.
• What happens when ALT RPTG is switched OFF? No altitude is transmitted and, if fitted, TCAS goes to standby (TCAS STBY memo). TCAS needs altitude reporting to work.
• When a new transponder code is only partly keyed in, which code is transmitted? The previous code, until all four figures are entered. CLR clears the code display.

TCAS

• How is a traffic advisory (TA) intruder shown on the ND? An amber circle. An RA intruder is a red square; a proximate intruder a filled white diamond.
• How is a resolution advisory (RA) intruder shown on the ND? A red square. RA is the highest threat level.
• When is the TCAS selected to TA (TA only)? With degraded performance, such as an engine failure, gear extended, or approaches to parallel runways. All RAs are then converted to TAs, and TA ONLY is shown on the NDs.
• With TCAS TRAFFIC at THRT, when are proximate and other intruders displayed? Only when a TA or RA is present, within ±2 700 ft. ALL shows them all the time within ±2 700 ft.
• With TCAS TRAFFIC at ABV, what vertical range is displayed? 9 900 ft above to 2 700 ft below. BLW is the reverse: 9 900 ft below and 2 700 ft above.

35 Oxygen 5 questions

Crew supply, passenger masks and the oxygen indications on the DOOR page.

DOOR page

• On the DOOR page, what does an amber REGUL LO PR mean? The oxygen pressure in the low-pressure circuit is low. The DOOR page also shows the crew oxygen bottle pressure.
• When is CKPT OXY shown in amber on the DOOR page? When the oxygen pressure is low or CREW SUPPLY is off. White CKPT OXY is normal.

Oxygen

• In AUTO, at what cabin altitude do the passenger oxygen mask doors open? Above 14 000 ft. MASK MAN ON opens them at any cabin altitude.
• When does the white PASSENGER SYS ON light go out? When the OXYGEN TIMER RESET is pushed on the maintenance panel. It comes on when the mask doors are actuated.
• What does a white OFF on the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton show? The crew oxygen supply valve is closed. ON opens the valve and supplies low-pressure oxygen to the cockpit masks.

36 Pneumatic 19 questions

Each engine supplies regulated, precooled bleed air; the APU and ground sources are the alternatives, and the cross bleed valve joins the two sides.

Engine bleed

• What closes when an ENG BLEED pushbutton is selected OFF? The bleed valve and the HP valve, with a white OFF light. OFF isolates that engine from the pneumatic system completely.
• Which of these turns on an ENG BLEED FAULT light? Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve. FAULT causes are overpressure, bleed overheat, a wing or engine leak on that side, or the bleed valve failing to close when it must.
• During an engine start the ENG BLEED FAULT light comes on. Which valve condition causes it? The bleed valve is not closed during engine start. The bleed valve must close during start so air goes to the starter; a valve that fails to close gives FAULT.
• Why would an ENG BLEED FAULT light come on with the APU BLEED pushbutton ON? The engine bleed valve has not closed although APU bleed is ON. With APU bleed ON, the engine bleed valves must close so the APU does not feed back into the engines.
• When does an ENG BLEED FAULT light go out? When the pushbutton is selected OFF or the fault has disappeared. The light reflects the condition; selecting OFF also extinguishes it.

APU bleed

• With APU BLEED selected ON, when does the APU bleed valve open? When APU speed is above 95 %. The valve waits until the APU is up to speed; the pushbutton shows a blue ON light.
• What light does the APU BLEED pushbutton show when selected ON? A blue ON light. Blue marks a system deliberately selected on that is normally off.
• What turns on the APU BLEED FAULT light? An APU bleed leak. APU BLEED FAULT is a leak detection, with an ECAM caution.

Cross bleed

• With the X BLEED selector in AUTO, when is the cross bleed valve open? When the APU bleed valve is open. In AUTO the valve follows the APU bleed valve, so the APU can supply both sides.
• In AUTO, what closes the cross bleed valve even with APU bleed in use (other than during engine start)? A wing, pylon or APU leak. Closing the valve isolates the leaking side from the healthy side.
• What do the OPEN and CLOSE positions of the X BLEED selector do? They force the cross bleed valve open or closed regardless of the automatic logic. OPEN and CLOSE are crew overrides of the automatic control.

Indications

• On the BLEED page, when is the precooler inlet pressure shown in amber? Below 4 psi or above 57 psi. Too little pressure means the bleed is not supplying; too much indicates a regulation failure.
• Below what precooler outlet temperature is the indication shown in amber on the BLEED page? 150 °C. A low outlet temperature points to a bleed not delivering hot air.
• The precooler outlet temperature turns amber when it exceeds what value for 5 seconds? 290 °C. The high limits are time-based: above 290 °C for 5 s, 270 °C for 15 s or 257 °C for 55 s.
• When does the high-pressure ground connection symbol appear on the BLEED page? When a high-pressure ground air source is connected. It is hidden when nothing is connected.
• When does the anti-ice indication appear on the BLEED page? When the WING anti-ice pushbutton is ON. The BLEED page shows wing anti-ice because it is a bleed air user.
• On the ground, when does a user arrow on the BLEED page turn amber? When the corresponding valve has been open for more than 10 seconds. On the ground wing anti-ice is limited to a short test; a valve left open longer is flagged.
• When is the engine number shown in amber on the BLEED page? When that engine's N2 is below idle. An engine below idle cannot supply bleed air.
• On the BLEED page, what does an amber crossline on the APU bleed valve mean? The APU master and APU BLEED are ON but the valve is closed. Commanded open but shown closed is a disagreement, so it is amber.

49 APU 20 questions

Master switch, start, and the speeds at which the starter, ignition and availability change. The APU feeds from the left tank and shuts itself down for many faults.

General

• What does the APU supply to the aircraft? Pneumatic and electrical power. It is a small gas turbine in the tail that supplies bleed air and drives a generator.

Master switch

• What light does the APU MASTER SW show when selected ON? A blue ON light. Blue for a normally-off system that has been switched on.
• What opens when the APU MASTER SW is set ON? The APU air intake flap and the fuel valve. The system powers up and performs a power-up test; the APU page appears on the ECAM.

Fuel

• Which tank does the APU draw its fuel from? The left wing tank only. The APU feed comes from the left side.
• When does the APU fuel pump run automatically? When both main fuel pumps in the left wing tank are off. Without tank pump pressure, the APU's own pump supplies it.

Shutdown

• After the MASTER SW is set OFF, how long does the APU keep running if APU bleed was being used? 60 seconds, to cool down. The cooling run protects the APU from thermal shock.
• During APU shutdown, at what speed does the air intake flap close? N = 7 %. The flap closes as the APU winds down.
• What does the amber FAULT light on the APU MASTER SW mean? An automatic APU shutdown has occurred. There are many automatic shutdown causes, such as overspeed, low oil pressure, EGT overtemperature or no flame.
• Which of these is NOT a cause of an automatic APU shutdown? APU bleed selected OFF. Switching APU bleed off just closes the bleed valve; the APU keeps running.

Start

• When is the APU starter energised after START is pressed? When the air intake flap is completely open. The starter waits for the intake flap to be fully open.
• How soon after the starter is energised does the APU ignition come on? 1.5 seconds. Ignition follows the starter by 1.5 s.
• At what APU speed are the starter and ignition switched off? 55 %. By 55 % the APU accelerates on its own.
• When does the green AVAIL light come on? When N is above 99.5 %, or 2 seconds after N reaches 95 %. The APU can then supply bleed air and electrical power.
• After the APU becomes available, when does the APU page leave the ECAM display? After more than 10 seconds. The APU page is shown automatically during the start and removed shortly after.

Indications

• On the APU page, above what speed is APU N shown in amber? 102 %. Amber above 102 %, red above 107 %.
• Above what speed is APU N shown in red? 107 %. Red indicates an overspeed.
• During an APU start, when is the APU EGT shown in amber? When it exceeds EGT max minus 33 °C. While running the same condition makes the value pulse amber; above EGT max it is red.
• When does FLAP OPEN pulse green on the APU page? When the air intake has not fully closed 3 minutes after the master switch was turned off. A flap stuck open after shutdown is flagged by pulsing.
• What does FUEL LO PR on the APU page mean? The APU fuel pressure is low. It is shown in amber and hidden when pressure is normal.
• When is the APU bleed pressure replaced by an amber XX on the APU page? When ADIRS 1 or 2, or the data from the ECB, is not available. The bleed pressure needs both air data and the APU computer (ECB).

52 Doors 5 questions

The cockpit door and the door status on the ECAM.

DOOR page

• On the DOOR page, what does a green door box mean? The door is closed and armed. An amber box shows an open door.

Cockpit door

• Which way does the cockpit door open, and what is it designed to withstand? Forward; it is bulletproof and safe in a decompression. In normal circumstances it is kept closed and the flight crew controls access.
• In the real aircraft, how must the COCKPIT DOOR switch be used to let the cabin crew in? Held in UNLOCK until the door is pushed open. NORM keeps the latches locked; LOCK refuses entry.
• What does a flashing OPEN light on the cockpit door panel mean? The cabin crew has started the emergency access procedure. Without flight crew reaction, the door unlocks after the time delay.
• How does the cockpit door react to a rapid decompression? Two redundant pressure sensors detect it and open all the latches. Opening the latches equalises the pressure between cockpit and cabin.

70 Power Plant 42 questions

The FADEC starts, controls and limits each engine. Thrust levers sit in detents that set limits; the E/WD shows what each engine is doing. Engine starting with bleed air from the other engine or a ground unit is here too.

Engine start

• When is a crossbleed engine start used? When a normal APU bleed start is not possible, usually because the APU is inoperative. Air from the running engine is used to start the second engine.
• In a crossbleed start, why is the receiving engine's ENG BLEED selected OFF? To prevent the running engine's air escaping back through the receiving engine. With the bleed valve closed, the air goes to the start valve instead of leaking out through the bleed duct.
• Where is the X BLEED selector set for a crossbleed engine start? OPEN. The cross bleed valve must be open to join the running engine's duct to the other side.
• What minimum bleed pressure is required before attempting a start from a crossbleed or an air start unit? 30 psi. If the pressure is lower, the running engine's thrust is increased (or the ASU checked) before starting.
• During a crossbleed start, what pressure should be maintained throughout? At least 25 psi. Pressure often drops as the start valve opens; thrust is added on the supplying engine to keep at least 25 psi.
• During a crossbleed start, the supplying engine needs about 40 % N1 to keep the pressure. What should the crew consider? Checking the area behind is clear and, if more than 40 % is needed, aborting as the configuration may be wrong. Needing much power suggests a leak or wrong valve setting, and jet blast becomes a hazard to people behind.
• After a crossbleed start, what happens to the X BLEED selector? It goes back to AUTO. After both engines run: supplying engine to idle, X BLEED to AUTO, receiving ENG BLEED back ON.
• When should a crossbleed engine start not be performed? During pushback, or where the engine's thrust would endanger people or property. The supplying engine needs significant thrust, which is dangerous behind the aircraft.
• Why is external electrical power required for an air start unit (ASU) start? Because the inoperative APU is not supplying electrical power. The ASU supplies air only; electrical power has to come from a ground power unit.
• Before an ASU is connected, how are the packs and the X BLEED selector set? Both packs OFF and X BLEED OPEN, with all bleeds OFF. All the ASU's air must go to the starter, so nothing else draws on it.

Start

• In which position is the ENG MODE selector for normal operation? NORM. IGN/START is used for starting on the ground and continuous ignition in flight.
• What does selecting ENG MODE to IGN/START do in flight? It provides continuous ignition as required. On the ground it starts the automatic or manual start sequence.
• With ENG MODE at CRANK and ENG MAN START ON, what happens? The start valve opens but the ignition does not fire. Cranking turns the engine with the starter only.
• What does setting an ENG MASTER lever to ON do? Tells the FADEC to start the automatic or manual start sequence. The start sequence follows the ENG MAN START pushbutton position.
• What does setting an ENG MASTER lever to OFF do? Shuts the engine down or aborts its start sequence. It is the normal shutdown control.
• Which condition turns on the FAULT light on the pedestal ENG panel? An automatic start sequence being aborted. FAULT also shows an HP fuel shut-off valve in an abnormal position or a thrust control malfunction. FIRE has its own light.
• With ENG MODE at CRANK, ENG MASTER ON and ENG MAN START ON, what process takes place? A wet crank. Master ON adds fuel, without ignition — a wet crank.
• With ENG MODE at CRANK, ENG MASTER OFF and ENG MAN START ON, what process takes place? A dry crank. No fuel and no ignition: the starter just turns the engine.

Thrust control

• On which engines are the N1 MODE pushbuttons fitted? IAE V2500 engines (on the A320ceo). N1 mode switches thrust control from EPR to N1 in an abnormal situation.
• In N1 unrated (degraded) mode, what protection is lost? The thrust lever detents no longer protect the limits, so overboost is possible. N1 then follows thrust lever position only.
• How many FADECs control each engine? One FADEC dedicated to each engine. Each FADEC controls and limits its own engine.
• Does the autothrust move the A320's thrust levers? No, they can only be moved manually. The levers set a limit; the A/THR controls the thrust within it.
• If a thrust lever is placed between two detents, which rating limit does the FADEC select? The rating of the higher detent. The FADEC always takes the next detent up as the limit.
• For a FLEX take-off thrust to be effective, the FLEX temperature must be higher than what? The current total air temperature (TAT). Without a valid FLEX temperature, the FLX/MCT detent gives MCT on the ground.
• On the ground, with no valid FLEX temperature set, what thrust does the FLX/MCT detent give? Maximum continuous thrust (MCT). A FLEX temperature is needed for reduced take-off thrust.
• After a FLEX take-off, can the crew return to FLEX thrust once they have moved the lever to TOGA or CL? No; FLX/MCT then gives MCT. Moving the lever out of FLX/MCT without reaching TOGA or CL has no effect.
• How can MAX take-off thrust always be obtained? By pushing the thrust levers fully forward. TOGA is always available to the pilot.

Autothrust

• What happens if one A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton is held for more than 15 seconds? The A/THR is disconnected for the rest of the flight, including alpha floor. It can only be recovered at the next FMGC power-up on the ground.
• In autothrust, what limits the thrust the FMGC can command (outside alpha floor)? The thrust lever position. The levers set the maximum; alpha floor is the exception.

Indications

• On the ENG page, when is the fuel filter clog indication displayed? When the pressure loss across the fuel filter is excessive. It is hidden when the filter pressure is normal.
• When does the oil quantity pulse on the ENG page? When it is below the oil advisory limit. Pulsing is an advisory, before any caution.
• What does a red oil pressure value on the ENG page mean? The oil pressure is in the red range. Amber is the amber range; red is the red (limit) range.
• When are the N1 and N2 vibration values shown in amber on the ENG page? When the rotor vibration is excessive. Vibration is an advisory parameter for each rotor.
• What does A FLOOR on the E/WD indicate? The alpha floor protection is active. It appears near the thrust rating display.
• Which thrust rating is shown on the E/WD as MREV? Maximum reverse thrust. Other ratings include TOGA, MCT, CLB, FLX, derated take-off and GA SOFT.
• What thrust rating does GA SOFT on the E/WD refer to? A soft go-around thrust. A soft go-around uses less than full TOGA thrust.
• When is IDLE shown on the E/WD? When both engines are at idle in flight. It helps the crew notice that thrust is at idle in the descent.
• What does an amber REV on the E/WD mean? The thrust reverser is unlocked. Green REV means fully deployed.
• On the A320neo E/WD, above what N1 is the value shown in red? 104 %. Exceeding the N1 limit is amber; beyond the 104 % red line it is red.
• What does the blue circle on the N1 gauge show? The thrust lever position. The amber mark is the N1 limit.
• When is the N2 value shown in a grey box on the E/WD? When the engine is in its start sequence or being cranked. The grey box disappears once the engine is started.
• On the A320neo E/WD, above what N2 is the value shown in red? 100 %. N2 has a red limit of 100 %.

PRO Autoland and Rejected Take-off 26 questions

Autoland limits and minima, the FMA sequence down to roll-out, and the speed bands that shape a rejected take-off decision.

Autoland

• Which FMA approach capability means autoland is not authorised? CAT 1. An autoland needs at least CAT 2 shown on the FMA.

Autoland limits

• What is the maximum crosswind for an autoland? 20 kt. Headwind is limited to 30 kt and tailwind to 10 kt.
• What is the maximum headwind for an autoland? 30 kt. Crosswind 20 kt, tailwind 10 kt.
• What is the maximum tailwind for an autoland? 10 kt. Tailwind is the most restrictive component.
• Within what glideslope angle range is autoland permitted? –2.5° to –3.25°. Steeper or shallower glideslopes are outside the certified envelope.
• Above what airport elevation is autoland not permitted? 9 200 ft. It is also not allowed below –2 000 ft pressure altitude.
• Below what aircraft weight is autoland not permitted? 44 000 kg. It is also not permitted above the maximum landing weight.

Autoland minima

• What is the minimum for an ILS CAT II approach? 100 ft decision height. CAT III SINGLE is 50 ft; CAT III DUAL may have no DH (RVR 75 m minimum).
• What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III DUAL approach with no decision height? 75 m. No DH is possible with fail-operational capability.

Autoland sequence

• At what height must LAND be shown on the FMA during an autoland? By 350 ft. If LAND is not shown, a go-around is flown (or a manual landing on a CAT II approach at or above 80 ft with visual references).
• At what height should FLARE appear on the FMA during an autoland? 40 ft. Without FLARE at 40 ft, the crew goes around (or lands manually with visual references).
• At about what height does the autothrust go to THR IDLE during an autoland? 30 ft. The 'RETARD' callout at 10 ft prompts the PF to set the levers to idle.
• When does ROLL OUT appear on the FMA? At main gear touchdown. The autopilot keeps the aircraft on the centreline.
• During an autoland, when does the aircraft remove its crosswind crab angle? Between about 20 ft and 10 ft. It aligns the longitudinal axis with the runway.
• What does a triple click during an autoland approach indicate? A downgrade of landing capability. Below 1 000 ft AAL and above 100 ft RA a downgrade calls for a go-around.
• On a CAT II approach, at or above what height must a takeover for a manual landing be made after an autoland problem? 80 ft. Visual references must be acquired.
• Below 1 000 ft AAL during an autoland, which event allows the approach to continue rather than requiring a go-around? An engine fire warning. Fire and smoke warnings are handled after landing; AP loss, cautions and downgrades lead to a go-around.
• Which of these triggers the AUTOLAND warning light in addition to signal and deviation problems? A long flare detected by the FMGS. With LAND or FLARE on the FMA and an AP engaged below 200 ft.

Go-around

• On a go-around, towards what pitch attitude is the aircraft rotated? 15° nose up. Thrust to TOGA, rotate, and call 'Go around' together.
• During a go-around, how is GA SOFT thrust obtained? By setting TOGA first (for SRS GA) and then FLX/MCT. The FMA then shows MAN GA SOFT.

Rejected take-off

• If a take-off is rejected below 72 kt, what does not activate? The ground spoilers and the autobrake. Full manual braking is then required.
• Into which speed phases is the take-off divided for the reject decision? Below 100 kt, between 100 kt and V1, and above V1. Above 100 kt rejecting becomes hazardous, so fewer reasons justify it.
• Who makes the decision to reject the take-off? The captain. The captain keeps a hand on the thrust levers until V1 and calls 'STOP'.
• From what speed does the ECAM inhibit non-essential warnings during the take-off? 80 kt. A magenta T.O INHIBIT memo shows on the E/WD.
• When does the take-off inhibition of ECAM warnings end? At 1 500 ft, or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever is first. Non-essential alerts are delayed until the critical phase is over.
• Between 100 kt and V1, which amber caution is a reason to reject the take-off? ENG FAIL. Others include F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT, ENG REVERSE FAULT or UNLOCKED, and THR LEVER FAULT.